Cisco 200-201 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which of the following activities is an example of direct user involvement in a cybersecurity event?

A. Gaining root access
B. Executing remote code
C. Modifying file permissions
D. Opening a harmful file

Answer: D

Explanation:

User interaction in cybersecurity refers to any deliberate action performed by an individual that influences the security state of a system. This typically involves the user knowingly or unknowingly triggering an event that can lead to either compromise or protection of the system. Among the given options, only one clearly represents an action initiated by the user that directly causes a security event.

• Option A: Gaining root access
  This refers to obtaining administrative or superuser privileges on a system. While critical for security, gaining root access usually happens through exploiting vulnerabilities, privilege escalation, or attacker efforts rather than intentional user interaction. It is a powerful state but not directly triggered by a normal user's deliberate action.

• Option B: Executing remote code
  Executing code remotely is often an attacker’s method to control or manipulate a target system from afar. Though sometimes this could be initiated by a user clicking a malicious link, executing remote code itself is primarily an attack technique rather than a user-driven event. It can occur automatically after an exploit without explicit user input.

• Option C: Modifying file permissions
  Adjusting file permissions is a system or administrative task that affects access control to files. While users might change permissions, this is a system configuration activity, not inherently a direct user interaction causing security breaches. It is a background action without the immediate risk typical of a malicious trigger.

• Option D: Opening a harmful file
  This action involves a user knowingly or unknowingly opening a file embedded with malware or malicious scripts. This direct interaction is often the starting point of cyberattacks like viruses, ransomware, or spyware infections. The user’s choice to open the file activates the malicious payload, making this the quintessential example of user interaction leading to a security incident.

In summary, user interaction in cybersecurity often means a user’s intentional or inadvertent action that directly triggers a security event. Opening a malicious file fits this description perfectly because it involves a conscious action by the user that activates the malicious code, unlike privilege escalation or remote code execution, which may happen passively or via exploitation. Awareness and training around recognizing suspicious files are vital because this user action remains one of the most common initial attack vectors. Thus, the correct answer is D.

Question 2:

Which security principle requires that multiple individuals share responsibility to complete a sensitive or critical task, enhancing overall security?

A. Least privilege
B. Need to know
C. Separation of duties
D. Due diligence

Answer: C

Explanation:

In information security, various principles help protect sensitive operations and data by managing access and responsibility. One critical principle involves ensuring that no single individual has unchecked control over important tasks, thus minimizing risk and promoting accountability.

• Option A: Least privilege
  This principle restricts access rights, allowing users to have only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their duties. While it reduces risk by limiting access scope, it does not mandate multiple people to be involved in performing the same task. It focuses on minimizing access, not task division.

• Option B: Need to know
  This principle limits access to sensitive information strictly to those who require it to fulfill their roles. It ensures confidentiality but does not imply dividing tasks among multiple users. It controls information visibility rather than how tasks are shared.

• Option C: Separation of duties
  This is the principle that mandates dividing critical tasks among multiple individuals to reduce the risk of fraud, errors, or unauthorized actions. By splitting responsibilities, such as one person initiating a transaction and another approving it, organizations create checks and balances. This makes it difficult for any single individual to misuse power or conceal wrongdoing, thus enhancing security and integrity.

• Option D: Due diligence
  Due diligence involves careful investigation and risk assessment before decision-making. It is a process-oriented concept that stresses thoroughness and responsibility, but it does not require multiple people to share a single critical task.

Separation of duties is fundamental for internal controls and risk management. It safeguards sensitive processes by distributing control so that no individual has total authority. This principle supports transparency, accountability, and reduces the chance of abuse or mistakes. In corporate environments, SoD is applied to finance, IT, and operations to prevent fraud and errors. For example, separating the roles of system administrators and auditors ensures independent oversight.

Thus, the principle that requires multiple persons to be involved in critical tasks to enhance security and accountability is clearly Separation of duties, making C the correct answer.

Question 3:

How is the phase called in a cyber attack lifecycle when an attacker exploits a vulnerability to gain unauthorized access to a system?

A. Action on objectives
B. Delivery
C. Exploitation
D. Installation

Answer: C

Explanation:

In a cyber attack lifecycle, the attacker’s actions are broken down into distinct phases to better understand and respond to threats. These phases typically include reconnaissance, delivery, exploitation, installation, and finally action on objectives. The question here focuses on the phase where the attacker actively uses a system vulnerability to compromise the target.

First, Action on objectives refers to the stage where the attacker carries out their ultimate goals such as data theft, system disruption, or ransomware deployment. This phase happens after the attacker has already gained access and completed exploitation and installation. Hence, it’s not the phase when the vulnerability is initially used.

Second, Delivery is about getting the malicious payload or exploit to the target system, for example through phishing emails or exploiting a web vulnerability. Delivery is crucial as it sets the stage for exploitation but does not involve actively using the vulnerability itself.

Third, Exploitation is the correct phase that defines the attacker’s active use of a vulnerability. During exploitation, the attacker leverages a flaw—such as a software bug, misconfiguration, or unpatched weakness—to gain unauthorized access or execute malicious code on the system. This step is pivotal because it transitions the attacker from merely possessing the capability to cause harm to actually breaching the system’s defenses.

Lastly, Installation refers to the attacker placing malware or backdoors on the compromised system to maintain access and persistence. This phase follows exploitation and is distinct because it focuses on establishing control rather than initial compromise.

To sum up, exploitation is the stage where the attacker takes advantage of a system weakness to breach security controls. Without exploitation, the attack cannot progress to installation or achieving final objectives. Therefore, the correct classification of this action in the attack lifecycle is Exploitation.

Question 4:

What is the main advantage of using agent-based cybersecurity protection compared to agentless protection?

A. It reduces maintenance expenses
B. It offers a centralized management platform
C. It monitors and analyzes all traffic directly on the device
D. It can manage many devices at once

Answer: C

Explanation:

In cybersecurity, organizations must choose between agent-based and agentless protection strategies, each with distinct features and trade-offs. Agent-based protection involves installing dedicated software—agents—on individual endpoints (like laptops, servers, or mobile devices) to monitor activity directly. Agentless protection, on the other hand, analyzes traffic and events from outside the endpoints, often through network devices or servers without requiring software installation on the protected devices.

Option A, suggesting agent-based solutions lower maintenance costs, is incorrect. Agent-based protection usually demands more upkeep because each agent must be installed, updated, and maintained across numerous endpoints. This can increase operational complexity and expense compared to agentless systems.

Option B mentions centralized platforms, but this is not exclusive to agent-based solutions. Both agent-based and agentless protections often include centralized management consoles for ease of control and monitoring. Hence, it is not a distinguishing advantage of agent-based protection.

Option C correctly identifies a major strength of agent-based protection: the ability to locally collect and analyze all traffic and behavior directly on the device where the agent resides. This local detection means the agent can monitor detailed system activity and network interactions in real time, offering more granular visibility. Importantly, this approach allows continuous protection even if the device is offline or disconnected from the network, enhancing security resilience.

Option D states that agent-based protection can manage many devices simultaneously, but this capability is also available in agentless approaches. The scalability to manage multiple devices is not unique to agent-based systems.

In summary, the key advantage of agent-based protection lies in its capability to monitor and detect threats directly on the endpoint, providing detailed, real-time analysis that improves detection accuracy and response speed. While it requires more management effort, this local visibility often outweighs the downsides in security-critical environments. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Question 5:

What principle is demonstrated when a security analyst gathers all relevant data during an incident to decide on the best response?

A. Decision making
B. Rapid response
C. Data mining
D. Due diligence

Answer: D

Explanation:

When a security incident occurs, the role of the analyst is to methodically collect and analyze pertinent information to determine the optimal course of action. This careful and responsible approach is best described by the principle of due diligence. Due diligence emphasizes thoroughness, care, and attention to detail, ensuring that decisions rest on solid evidence rather than assumptions or incomplete data.

To clarify why due diligence is the best fit, let’s analyze the other options:

A. Decision making is indeed part of the overall incident response process, but it refers specifically to choosing among options based on the information gathered. It does not describe the principle behind the careful collection and evaluation of data, which is what the question focuses on. Thus, decision making is the subsequent step after due diligence.

B. Rapid response focuses on speed—acting quickly to contain or mitigate a threat. While timely action is critical, rapid response prioritizes urgency and immediate execution rather than the careful and detailed analysis of information. Due diligence, in contrast, stresses thoroughness, which may sometimes require measured evaluation even amidst urgency.

C. Data mining is the technique of examining large datasets to discover patterns or correlations. Although it might be used during investigations, data mining is a method rather than a guiding principle. It does not inherently require the comprehensive care and caution that due diligence demands when gathering relevant incident information.

D. Due diligence is the process of exercising reasonable care and caution when performing a task—in this case, collecting incident data. It mandates that analysts gather all necessary information, critically assess it, and avoid making hasty or uninformed decisions. This principle ensures that responses are well-founded and reduces the risk of overlooking key details that could affect the incident resolution.

In cybersecurity incident handling, following due diligence means the analyst is not only thorough but also responsible in their approach, ensuring the best possible understanding of the situation before taking action. This leads to more effective and safer incident management outcomes. Therefore, due diligence is the guiding principle when gathering information to determine the best response.

Question 6:

In the context of information security, what does the acronym CIA stand for?

A. Confidentiality, identity, and authorization
B. Confidentiality, integrity, and authorization
C. Confidentiality, identity, and availability
D. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability

Answer: D

Explanation:

The acronym CIA is fundamental in information security and refers to three core principles: Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability. Together, these principles form the foundation for designing security policies, controls, and practices aimed at protecting organizational data and systems.

Here’s a breakdown of each component:

Confidentiality ensures that sensitive information is only accessible to authorized individuals. Protecting confidentiality prevents unauthorized disclosure that could lead to data breaches, privacy violations, or competitive disadvantages. Techniques such as encryption, access controls, and authentication protocols help safeguard confidentiality.

Integrity refers to maintaining the accuracy and reliability of data over its entire lifecycle. This means data should not be altered or corrupted either by malicious actors or accidental errors. Ensuring integrity involves mechanisms like checksums, digital signatures, and hashing algorithms, which verify that data remains unmodified unless through authorized changes.

Availability guarantees that information and systems are accessible to authorized users whenever needed. This principle focuses on preventing downtime caused by attacks, system failures, or disasters. High availability architectures, redundancy, and disaster recovery plans support maintaining availability.

Now, let’s consider why the other options are incorrect:

A. Confidentiality, identity, and authorization: Identity and authorization relate to access control but are not the pillars of the CIA triad. The triad is concerned with protecting the data itself, not the mechanisms for access management.

B. Confidentiality, integrity, and authorization: Authorization controls who can perform certain actions, which is critical for security but falls outside the core CIA framework. The CIA triad focuses more broadly on protecting data confidentiality, correctness, and accessibility rather than permissions specifically.

C. Confidentiality, identity, and availability: Identity is important in authentication processes but is not part of the CIA triad, which emphasizes integrity as a fundamental property alongside confidentiality and availability.

Understanding the CIA triad is essential for anyone working in cybersecurity because it provides a simple yet powerful framework to evaluate security risks and design effective controls. By prioritizing confidentiality, integrity, and availability, organizations can protect their assets from unauthorized access, prevent data tampering, and ensure that systems remain operational to support business needs.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

Question 7:

How does rule-based detection fundamentally differ from statistical detection when used in security monitoring?

A. Proof of a user's identity
B. Proof of a user's action
C. Likelihood of a user's action
D. Falsification of a user's identity

Answer: B

Explanation:

In security monitoring, rule-based detection and statistical detection are two distinct approaches for identifying potential threats or abnormal activities, each operating on different principles.

Rule-Based Detection operates by using predefined, explicit rules or signatures crafted by security professionals. These rules are based on known attack patterns or suspicious behaviors established through prior knowledge. When a user’s behavior matches one of these rules, an alert is triggered or a response initiated. For example, if a user tries to log in with incorrect credentials multiple times consecutively, the system detects this specific action and raises an alarm. This detection method is deterministic — it confirms the presence of particular actions known to be risky or malicious. Hence, rule-based detection provides proof of a user's action by directly linking observed behaviors to known malicious patterns.

On the other hand, Statistical Detection takes a more flexible approach by analyzing deviations from normal behavior patterns rather than relying on fixed rules. It creates a baseline of typical user activities or network traffic and flags anomalies based on statistical probability. For example, an unusual spike in data transfers or logins outside regular hours might be flagged as suspicious even if no specific rule has been violated. This method focuses on the likelihood or probability that an observed behavior is abnormal, rather than seeking proof of specific actions.

Now, why is B (Proof of a user's action) the correct answer? Rule-based detection precisely identifies when a user has performed a particular suspicious action that matches the rule. This is different from statistical detection, which measures how likely or unlikely an action is based on past behavior but does not directly confirm that a malicious action occurred.

The other options are incorrect for these reasons:

• A (Proof of a user's identity) refers to authentication, which involves verifying who the user is. Neither rule-based nor statistical detection primarily focuses on verifying identity; they focus on monitoring behavior after authentication.

• C (Likelihood of a user's action) better describes statistical detection, not rule-based detection, which looks for direct evidence rather than probabilities.

• D (Falsification of a user's identity) concerns identity spoofing or impersonation, a separate issue that detection systems might help uncover indirectly but is not the core distinction between these two detection methods.

In summary, rule-based detection is about confirming specific user actions against known patterns (proof of action), while statistical detection identifies deviations from expected behavior based on likelihood. This makes B the most accurate choice describing the fundamental difference.

Question 8:

Which of the following tools is primarily used in the Cisco Cybersecurity Operations environment to capture and analyze network traffic for security incidents?

A Packet Tracer
B Wireshark
C Cisco Packet Tracer
D NetFlow Analyzer

Answer: B

Explanation:

The 200-201 Cisco Cybersecurity Operations (CBROPS) exam tests knowledge about tools and techniques used to detect, analyze, and respond to cybersecurity threats in a network environment. One core skill is the ability to capture and analyze network traffic to identify malicious activity or security incidents.

Wireshark is a widely-used network protocol analyzer that captures live network traffic and allows detailed inspection of individual packets. It supports deep packet inspection, protocol decoding, and detailed analysis, making it invaluable for security analysts investigating suspicious traffic patterns or incidents. In cybersecurity operations, Wireshark is used to detect anomalies, verify the presence of exploits, and understand the behavior of malware or attackers on the network.

Packet Tracer and Cisco Packet Tracer (options A and C) are essentially the same tool, designed primarily for network simulation and learning rather than live traffic capture and analysis. These tools are mostly used for practicing Cisco network configurations but are not typically used in active cybersecurity operations.

NetFlow Analyzer collects flow data (metadata about traffic flows rather than full packet captures). While it provides valuable traffic insight and helps detect anomalies such as unusual traffic spikes, it doesn’t offer packet-level detail and analysis like Wireshark.

In summary, Wireshark is the primary tool in a Cisco cybersecurity operations context for capturing and analyzing network traffic, which is critical for identifying and responding to security incidents during the 200-201 exam scenarios.

Question 9:

What is the primary purpose of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system in a Cisco cybersecurity operations center?

A To generate network traffic for testing
B To aggregate, correlate, and analyze security event data from multiple sources
C To encrypt data transmissions between endpoints
D To manage Cisco device configurations

Answer: B

Explanation:

In the context of Cisco cybersecurity operations, a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system plays a critical role in monitoring and managing security alerts generated by hardware and software across an organization’s IT infrastructure.

The primary purpose of a SIEM is to aggregate data from multiple sources such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems (IDS), servers, and endpoint devices. This data includes logs, alerts, and event records. The SIEM then correlates these diverse data points to identify patterns that may indicate a cybersecurity threat or breach.

By consolidating data into a centralized platform, the SIEM enables security analysts to have a comprehensive view of network activity, which is crucial for timely detection of incidents like malware infections, insider threats, or network intrusions. SIEM systems also help with compliance reporting, forensic investigations, and generating alerts based on predefined rules or advanced machine learning techniques.

Option A is incorrect because generating network traffic is not a function of SIEMs. Option C relates to data encryption, which is handled by other security tools such as VPNs or encryption protocols. Option D is about device management, typically done via network management tools, not SIEMs.

Therefore, the best choice is B, reflecting the core role of SIEM systems in collecting, correlating, and analyzing security events to support incident detection and response, which is a key focus area in the 200-201 CBROPS exam.

Question 10:

Which Cisco technology is designed to provide threat intelligence sharing among multiple security devices and systems?

A Cisco SecureX
B Cisco AnyConnect
C Cisco DNA Center
D Cisco ISE

Answer: A

Explanation:

Threat intelligence sharing is critical for modern cybersecurity operations, enabling organizations to rapidly identify and respond to emerging threats by sharing data across devices and security platforms.

Cisco SecureX is Cisco’s integrated security platform designed to unify visibility, simplify operations, and automate threat response across Cisco and third-party security products. One of its key capabilities is threat intelligence sharing, which allows security devices and teams to collaborate efficiently by sharing insights about threats, indicators of compromise (IOCs), and attack patterns.

SecureX aggregates data from various sources, including endpoint protection, firewalls, SIEMs, and cloud services, enabling comprehensive situational awareness and faster incident response. This capability is vital in the 200-201 CBROPS exam domain focused on incident response and threat hunting.

Cisco AnyConnect (option B) is primarily a VPN client used for secure remote access, not for threat intelligence sharing. Cisco DNA Center (option C) focuses on network automation and assurance, while Cisco ISE (Identity Services Engine) (option D) manages network access control and policy enforcement. Neither of these directly provides a platform for threat intelligence sharing.

Hence, Cisco SecureX is the correct answer as it embodies Cisco’s approach to integrated cybersecurity operations, including threat intelligence sharing, which is essential knowledge for passing the Cisco 200-201 CBROPS exam.