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Last Update: Oct 06, 2026

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Microsoft AB-900 Practice Test 14

Question 130

Developers need to define client IDs, redirect URIs and requested scopes for a new application. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Create and configure a Microsoft Entra app registration.
  2. Manage the Microsoft Entra enterprise application instance.
  3. Use a supported managed identity with scoped permissions.
  4. Review and grant only approved application permissions via admin consent.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Registration stores the application's identity configuration and API permission declaration. This directly addresses developer-side application identity definition.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Enterprise apps represent tenant-local service principals and user assignments. Its purpose is tenant access to deployed SaaS app; the specified need is developer-side application identity definition.

C:

Managed identities provision service identity tokens without customer-managed credentials. It would support passwordless Azure workload identity, not the stated developer-side application identity definition.

D:

Tenant-level application grants require privileged review and scope controls. Its purpose is governance of application-level API access; the specified need is developer-side application identity definition.

Question 131

An app must read the signed-in person's profile only with that user's authorized context. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Inspect application permissions and consent grants in Entra ID.
  2. Request an appropriate delegated Microsoft Graph scope.
  3. Request an approved application permission with a workload identity.
  4. Require administrator review for permission scopes beyond user consent authority.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Delegated permissions operate within the signed-in user's effective rights. This directly addresses per-user constrained API access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Consent inventory reveals existing delegated and app-only authorization. The action is relevant to review of existing app API privileges rather than per-user constrained API access.

C:

Application permissions support app-only access independent of a user session. The action is relevant to unattended API access with no user rather than per-user constrained API access.

D:

Admin consent governs permissions that exceed user grant rights. This helps with elevated consent for high-impact API scopes instead of the required per-user constrained API access.

Question 132

A financial application requires devices evaluated compliant by the organization's MDM platform. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Require an approved authentication strength in Conditional Access.
  2. Apply a policy with risk conditions and the block access grant.
  3. Require a compliant device in Microsoft Entra Conditional Access.
  4. Require an appropriately hybrid-joined device where supported.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The grant relies on evaluated management compliance state. This directly addresses access only from policy-compliant endpoints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authentication strength constrains eligible methods beyond generic MFA. That addresses stronger phishing-resistant sign-in methods, whereas the current case requires access only from policy-compliant endpoints.

B:

Risk-based block access prevents a session rather than permitting a second-factor bypass. It is used for risk-triggered denial; this scenario calls for access only from policy-compliant endpoints.

D:

Hybrid-join grant conditions assess the required device trust. It is used for hybrid device-trust gated access; this scenario calls for access only from policy-compliant endpoints.

Question 133

A department needs membership that automatically tracks an employee's directory attributes. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Use assigned group membership with an approval process.
  2. Use supported entitlement management access packages.
  3. Use PIM eligible role activation instead of permanent role assignment.
  4. Configure a Microsoft Entra dynamic group membership rule.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Dynamic groups evaluate member properties without manual updates. This directly addresses attribute-driven group population.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assigned groups allow direct intentional membership control. Its purpose is curated manually approved group access; the specified need is attribute-driven group population.

B:

Access packages automate approved and time-limited resource assignment. It would support request-based temporary bundle access, not the stated attribute-driven group population.

C:

PIM reduces standing role access through controlled activation. Its purpose is temporary high-privilege access; the specified need is attribute-driven group population.

Question 134

A new hire needs a temporary credential to register passwordless authentication for the first time. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Issue a policy-approved Temporary Access Pass.
  2. Configure the authentication methods policy for eligible groups.
  3. Reset or re-register permitted user authentication methods.
  4. Review the user's authentication methods and registration details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Temporary Access Pass supports bootstrapping and recovery of strong authentication. This directly addresses first-time credential bootstrap.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Method policies control allowed registration and use of methods. The action is relevant to scoped passkey eligibility rather than first-time credential bootstrap.

C:

Removing obsolete method registration enables controlled credential recovery. This helps with safe replacement of an authentication device instead of the required first-time credential bootstrap.

D:

Method inventory reports which factors are enrolled. The action is relevant to current factor enrollment evidence rather than first-time credential bootstrap.

Question 135

One credential theft alert indicates an account is at high user risk after multiple sessions. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Revoke the account's sign-in sessions and perform approved recovery.
  2. Investigate and remediate Microsoft Entra risky users.
  3. Review the risky sign-in detection and supporting details.
  4. Apply the supported dismissal or remediation workflow for user risk.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

User risk evaluates the likelihood of a compromised identity. This directly addresses response to account-level compromise.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Session revocation prevents continued reuse of outstanding authentication sessions. It is used for termination of active compromised sign-ins; this scenario calls for response to account-level compromise.

C:

Sign-in risk reports assess one authentication event. It is used for troubleshooting one anomalous authentication; this scenario calls for response to account-level compromise.

D:

Risk remediation records resolution after recovery action. That addresses clearing a verified recovered user-risk case, whereas the current case requires response to account-level compromise.

Question 136

A human user cannot access an application and helpdesk needs the Conditional Access decision. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Inspect Microsoft Entra provisioning logs for the target application.
  2. Review both sign-in and audit log evidence in the investigation.
  3. Query the Microsoft Entra sign-in log for the attempt.
  4. Query Microsoft Entra audit logs for the directory update.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Sign-in records capture authentication results and policy enforcement. This directly addresses per-attempt sign-in investigation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Provisioning logs report account synchronization and processing outcomes. It would support app identity provisioning diagnostics, not the stated per-attempt sign-in investigation.

B:

Authentication and administrative activity are separate but complementary evidence streams. Its purpose is end-to-end identity incident timeline; the specified need is per-attempt sign-in investigation.

D:

Audit events record administrative directory object changes. Its purpose is attribution of directory updates; the specified need is per-attempt sign-in investigation.

Question 137

An access rule is being proposed and security wants to know potential disruption before applying it. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Use the Conditional Access What If tool with the applicable sign-in conditions.
  2. Inspect the sign-in log Conditional Access results.
  3. Design narrow break-glass exclusions with monitoring and documented controls.
  4. Enable report-only Conditional Access evaluation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Report-only calculates hypothetical results without enforcing denial. This directly addresses safe initial assessment of policy impact.

Incorrect Answers

A:

What If evaluates policy applicability under selected inputs. The action is relevant to prospective policy applicability for one scenario rather than safe initial assessment of policy impact.

B:

Real sign-in logs record policies and grants evaluated at that event. This helps with diagnosis of actual conditional access denial instead of the required safe initial assessment of policy impact.

C:

Emergency exclusions prevent tenant-wide lockout while retaining audit oversight. The action is relevant to controlled emergency account resilience rather than safe initial assessment of policy impact.

Question 138

An auditor wants department owners to periodically confirm who still needs access to an application. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Schedule access reviews for the relevant membership or application.
  2. Publish an entitlement management access package.
  3. Configure appropriate lifecycle workflows in Entra ID Governance.
  4. Manage eligibility and activation with Microsoft Entra PIM.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Access reviews enable accountable periodic entitlement recertification. This directly addresses periodic membership review.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Entitlement packages bundle resource access and request policies. It is used for delegated temporary external onboarding; this scenario calls for periodic membership review.

C:

Lifecycle workflows automate identity-related events and task sequences. That addresses automated workforce identity transitions, whereas the current case requires periodic membership review.

D:

PIM implements controlled time-limited privilege. It is used for just-in-time privileged administration; this scenario calls for periodic membership review.

Question 139

A Microsoft 365 tenant has many gaps and security wants broadly scoped recommended improvements. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Review the relevant Copilot usage and analytics dashboards.
  2. Review Microsoft Secure Score.
  3. Review Entra Identity Secure Score.
  4. Review Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Secure Score aggregates security recommendations across Microsoft security controls. This directly addresses broad cloud security posture recommendations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Adoption metrics track product use, not security or compliance framework scores. Its purpose is Copilot adoption measurement; the specified need is broad cloud security posture recommendations.

C:

Identity Secure Score focuses identity-specific hardening measurements. Its purpose is identity-only configuration improvements; the specified need is broad cloud security posture recommendations.

D:

Compliance Manager organizes control assessments and improvement actions. It would support formal compliance control improvement, not the stated broad cloud security posture recommendations.

Question 140

A supplier must access one invited SharePoint site with their existing company login. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Configure cross-tenant access and external collaboration restrictions.
  2. Run an access review and remove the unneeded guest entitlement.
  3. Configure Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration for an invited guest.
  4. Configure B2B direct connect and required cross-tenant policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

B2B collaboration grants scoped resource access to external identities. This directly addresses ordinary external guest collaboration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Tenant collaboration policies govern permitted partner organizations. This helps with partner domain allow/deny governance instead of the required ordinary external guest collaboration.

B:

Review-based cleanup reduces persistence of abandoned partner access. The action is relevant to expired external collaboration rights rather than ordinary external guest collaboration.

D:

Direct connect supports certain cross-organization shared-channel experiences. The action is relevant to cross-tenant Teams shared-channel participation rather than ordinary external guest collaboration.


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