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Microsoft AB-900 Practice Test 13

Question 120

A detected malicious file has been quarantined and the team must restore service safely. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Review threat analytics reports in the Defender security portal.
  2. Correlate identity, file and endpoint telemetry within the incident investigation.
  3. Isolate the affected endpoint through an approved Defender response action.
  4. Validate remediation and monitor for recurrence after recovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Recovery verification checks that a threat is resolved and normal use is safe. This directly addresses post-remediation restoration confidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Threat analytics synthesizes campaigns and defensive recommendations. That addresses contextual intelligence about an active threat, whereas the current case requires post-remediation restoration confidence.

B:

Correlated evidence reconstructs the activity across multiple workloads. It is used for incident scope from heterogeneous security signals; this scenario calls for post-remediation restoration confidence.

C:

Isolation limits network communication while investigators work. That addresses immediate containment of a compromised endpoint, whereas the current case requires post-remediation restoration confidence.

Question 121

Operations wants sensitive administrative actions performed only after just-in-time elevation. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Use privileged role eligibility and activation rather than permanent assignment.
  2. Assign a supported read-only security role.
  3. Reduce the application permission scope before authorizing it.
  4. Review and revoke unnecessary vendor access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Time-bound elevation constrains standing administrative power. This directly addresses temporary privileged access.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Least-privilege RBAC separates investigation visibility from policy modification. It would support observer rights for security telemetry, not the stated temporary privileged access.

C:

Narrowing application grants reduces data exposure if the workload is compromised. Its purpose is minimum data-access permissions for an app; the specified need is temporary privileged access.

D:

Periodic access review removes obsolete privileges. It would support lifecycle cleanup of external privilege, not the stated temporary privileged access.

Question 122

Security wants enough forensic evidence to reconstruct suspicious changes after an insider event. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Replace shared secrets with separate scoped workload identities.
  2. Enable appropriate audit collection and protected retention.
  3. Segment access paths and enforce least privilege between workloads.
  4. Revoke sessions and enforce account recovery for the affected identity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Durable security logs preserve records for incident reconstruction. This directly addresses recoverable event evidence after compromise.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Segregated identities prevent one exposed credential from compromising all environments. This helps with bounded workload credential compromise instead of the required recoverable event evidence after compromise.

C:

Segmentation and narrow permissions reduce blast radius after initial compromise. This helps with limited lateral movement from a compromised workstation instead of the required recoverable event evidence after compromise.

D:

Session revocation interrupts previously granted cloud access. The action is relevant to immediate containment of stolen sessions rather than recoverable event evidence after compromise.

Question 123

A compliance officer needs a retained cross-workload record of file accesses and mailbox operations. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Inspect Entra sign-in logs for that attempted login.
  2. Query supported Defender for Endpoint device events.
  3. Search relevant Microsoft Purview unified audit records.
  4. Inspect Microsoft Entra audit logs for the administrative change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Unified audit records capture supported user and admin actions across services. This directly addresses cross-service activity audit evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sign-in records expose authentication outcomes and applicable conditions. It is used for interactive authentication troubleshooting; this scenario calls for cross-service activity audit evidence.

B:

Endpoint telemetry records device behaviors beyond identity administration logs. That addresses device execution evidence, whereas the current case requires cross-service activity audit evidence.

D:

Audit logs record directory configuration mutations. That addresses attribution of configuration edits, whereas the current case requires cross-service activity audit evidence.

Question 124

An organization wants to verify affected endpoints are clean after cloud-account containment. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Block sign-in and revoke active sessions for the affected identity.
  2. Require a verified password reset and protect the new authentication factors.
  3. Review risky sign-ins and user-risk records together.
  4. Investigate related device alerts and remediation status in Defender.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Identity recovery alone does not prove endpoint compromise is resolved. This directly addresses device-side assurance after an identity incident.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Blocking new sign-ins and ending sessions interrupt account misuse. It would support urgent compromised-user access containment, not the stated device-side assurance after an identity incident.

B:

Credential replacement invalidates the known compromised password. Its purpose is recovery from password exposure; the specified need is device-side assurance after an identity incident.

C:

Risk dashboards correlate anomalies at sign-in and identity levels. It would support account-focused anomalous access analysis, not the stated device-side assurance after an identity incident.

Question 125

An admin needs a directory record for an employee who is hired full-time. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Invite a B2B guest identity with specific resource access.
  2. Manage its enterprise application service principal.
  3. Use a Microsoft Entra security group for app access assignment.
  4. Create a Microsoft Entra member user.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Member identities represent primary internal workforce accounts. This directly addresses an internal organization identity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Guest access allows limited collaboration while retaining external identity origin. The action is relevant to access for a named external partner rather than an internal organization identity.

B:

The service principal represents an application instance in the directory. This helps with tenant-scoped enterprise application identity instead of the required an internal organization identity.

C:

Group membership enables reusable access targeting. The action is relevant to cohort-based application authorization rather than an internal organization identity.

Question 126

A Conditional Access policy should apply only to a sensitive payroll application. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Target the specific cloud application in the policy assignments.
  2. Configure an appropriate MFA grant control for the eligible users.
  3. Configure the supported location condition with a block access policy.
  4. Set the proposed Conditional Access policy to report-only mode.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

App selection determines which resource sign-ins are evaluated. This directly addresses scope of a particular protected app.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Grant controls define conditions that a sign-in must satisfy. It is used for required additional authentication for selected users; this scenario calls for scope of a particular protected app.

C:

Network conditions and block decisions enforce location restrictions. That addresses explicit access denial from restricted locations, whereas the current case requires scope of a particular protected app.

D:

Report-only evaluations record prospective outcomes without enforcement. It is used for safe policy impact analysis; this scenario calls for scope of a particular protected app.

Question 127

A user receives an AADSTS error after trying to access Teams and support needs the failed grant control. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Review the Microsoft Entra Identity Secure Score recommendations.
  2. Inspect Microsoft Entra sign-in logs for the attempt.
  3. Examine Microsoft Entra Identity Protection user-risk detections.
  4. Search Microsoft Entra audit logs for the policy mutation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Sign-in logs show application, error code and Conditional Access outcome. This directly addresses failed sign-in evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Identity Secure Score emphasizes identity control maturity and opportunities. Its purpose is identity-wide recommended hardening actions; the specified need is failed sign-in evidence.

C:

User-risk signals assess possible identity compromise. Its purpose is aggregated account compromise risk; the specified need is failed sign-in evidence.

D:

Directory audit events attribute administrative changes. It would support author and time of policy change, not the stated failed sign-in evidence.

Question 128

A SaaS app trusts Microsoft Entra as its identity provider through signed SAML assertions. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Evaluate a supported password-based SSO integration and its limitations.
  2. Enable supported seamless authentication and SSO configuration.
  3. Configure an enterprise application for SAML-based single sign-on.
  4. Configure the app's OIDC sign-in integration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

SAML exchanges signed assertions for federated application authentication. This directly addresses standards-based SAML sign-in.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Password-based SSO can store and supply credentials for incompatible legacy apps. This helps with legacy password-oriented app access instead of the required standards-based SAML sign-in.

B:

Seamless SSO uses existing authenticated context where protocols and policies allow. The action is relevant to reduced repeated prompts in managed sessions rather than standards-based SAML sign-in.

D:

OIDC adds identity tokens over an OAuth-based authorization flow. The action is relevant to OIDC identity federation rather than standards-based SAML sign-in.

Question 129

A global role should be available to an administrator only after requesting time-bound elevation. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Configure an approver requirement in the PIM activation settings.
  2. Review PIM role assignment schedules and expiration.
  3. Inspect PIM audit history and activation records.
  4. Configure eligible assignment and activation in Microsoft Entra PIM.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

PIM eligibility separates standing rights from temporary activated privileges. This directly addresses just-in-time role elevation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Approval gates enforce oversight on privileged activation. It is used for independently approved privilege activation; this scenario calls for just-in-time role elevation.

B:

PIM reports expose eligible and active role assignment lifetimes. That addresses upcoming privileged entitlement expiry, whereas the current case requires just-in-time role elevation.

C:

Privileged activity logs attribute activation decisions and timestamps. It is used for accountable temporary role usage; this scenario calls for just-in-time role elevation.

Question 130

Developers need to define client IDs, redirect URIs and requested scopes for a new application. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Create and configure a Microsoft Entra app registration.
  2. Manage the Microsoft Entra enterprise application instance.
  3. Use a supported managed identity with scoped permissions.
  4. Review and grant only approved application permissions via admin consent.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Registration stores the application's identity configuration and API permission declaration. This directly addresses developer-side application identity definition.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Enterprise apps represent tenant-local service principals and user assignments. Its purpose is tenant access to deployed SaaS app; the specified need is developer-side application identity definition.

C:

Managed identities provision service identity tokens without customer-managed credentials. It would support passwordless Azure workload identity, not the stated developer-side application identity definition.

D:

Tenant-level application grants require privileged review and scope controls. Its purpose is governance of application-level API access; the specified need is developer-side application identity definition.


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