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Last Update: Oct 06, 2026

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Microsoft AB-900 Practice Test 11

Question 100

A support session should show which identity made a privileged mailbox setting change. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Inspect the file's access-control membership and permissions.
  2. Authenticate the identity using an approved sign-in method.
  3. Apply resource authorization and scoped permissions.
  4. Use audit events associated with the actor and change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Audit records attribute administrative mutations to the responsible identity. This directly addresses accountability for privileged modifications.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authentication success does not override resource-level authorization. It would support resolving missing file entitlements, not the stated accountability for privileged modifications.

B:

Authentication establishes the claimant's identity. Its purpose is validation of the sign-in principal; the specified need is accountability for privileged modifications.

C:

Authorization decides what an authenticated principal can perform. It would support permission enforcement after sign-in, not the stated accountability for privileged modifications.

Question 101

A user has forgotten the phone during sign-in and the organization wants a controlled temporary onboarding credential. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Issue an eligible Microsoft Entra Temporary Access Pass.
  2. Configure supported multifactor authentication for eligible sign-ins.
  3. Configure supported FIDO2 or passkey sign-in.
  4. Use time-based one-time password authentication.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Temporary Access Pass supports time-limited bootstrap of stronger authentication. This directly addresses time-limited onboarding authentication.

Incorrect Answers

B:

MFA combines independent verification factors to reduce password-only risk. This helps with a policy requiring more than a password instead of the required time-limited onboarding authentication.

C:

FIDO credentials resist credential replay on fraudulent origins. The action is relevant to phishing-resistant authenticator rather than time-limited onboarding authentication.

D:

TOTP creates rotating codes based on a shared secret and clock. This helps with rotating authenticator verification code instead of the required time-limited onboarding authentication.

Question 102

A contractor connects from a restricted geography; access must be denied regardless of valid MFA. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Evaluate user-risk and sign-in-risk signals separately.
  2. Apply a Conditional Access location condition with a block grant.
  3. Configure Conditional Access report-only mode for the proposed policy.
  4. Require additional authentication through risk-aware Conditional Access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Explicit access block can enforce prohibited locations despite other grants. This directly addresses location-based access denial.

Incorrect Answers

A:

User risk concerns compromised account likelihood while sign-in risk concerns an event. That addresses differentiation of identity and event risk, whereas the current case requires location-based access denial.

C:

Report-only records what a policy would do before enforcement. That addresses simulated risk-policy deployment, whereas the current case requires location-based access denial.

D:

Risk conditions can trigger stronger access controls for suspicious sessions. It is used for risk-adjusted interactive sign-in; this scenario calls for location-based access denial.

Question 103

Compliance managers need to track assessments against regulatory control frameworks and evidence tasks. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Review Microsoft Secure Score recommended actions.
  2. Review Identity Secure Score and its identity recommendations.
  3. Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager improvement actions.
  4. Review the relevant Copilot usage and adoption reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Compliance Manager organizes assessment controls and evidence beyond security score. This directly addresses regulatory compliance improvement planning.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Microsoft Secure Score summarizes assessed security posture and improvement opportunities. Its purpose is broad Microsoft 365 security posture prioritization; the specified need is regulatory compliance improvement planning.

B:

Identity Secure Score evaluates identity protection configuration signals. It would support Entra-focused identity hardening, not the stated regulatory compliance improvement planning.

D:

Adoption metrics capture use patterns, not security configuration gaps. It would support product usage measurement rather than security score, not the stated regulatory compliance improvement planning.

Question 104

A SOC operator wants to inspect one detection's severity, source device, and evidence chain. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Review the appropriate Defender XDR security dashboard and reporting trends.
  2. Investigate a cross-workload incident in Microsoft Defender XDR.
  3. Use advanced hunting in Microsoft Defender XDR.
  4. Open the relevant Defender XDR alert details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Alerts contain the detection's individual evidence and context. This directly addresses alert-level security evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security reporting summarizes incident and alert activity over time. This helps with aggregate threat detection trends instead of the required alert-level security evidence.

B:

Defender XDR groups related cross-product alerts into incidents. The action is relevant to unified threat investigation rather than alert-level security evidence.

C:

Advanced hunting supports query-based threat exploration over available event data. This helps with proactive event-based threat hunting instead of the required alert-level security evidence.

Question 105

Attackers spoof executives' names and domains in messages seeking payment. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Configure anti-phishing and impersonation protection policies.
  2. Use Defender email investigation or Threat Explorer where licensed.
  3. Configure Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policy.
  4. Apply Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Anti-phishing policy can evaluate spoofing and impersonation signals. This directly addresses executive impersonation defense.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Email investigation tools show message detections, delivery and remediation events. That addresses investigating malicious mail delivery, whereas the current case requires executive impersonation defense.

C:

Safe Links evaluates URLs at time of user interaction where supported. It is used for URL-click protection for email and Office content; this scenario calls for executive impersonation defense.

D:

Safe Attachments analyzes suspicious files using supported detonation workflows. That addresses malware inspection of email attachments, whereas the current case requires executive impersonation defense.

Question 106

Security needs anomalous on-premises Active Directory activity correlated with identity attacks. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Configure Microsoft Defender for Office 365 protection.
  2. Deploy Microsoft Defender for Identity where applicable.
  3. Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery and governance.
  4. Investigate the device using Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Defender for Identity observes supported identity infrastructure and activities. This directly addresses on-premises identity attack detection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The Office workload product focuses on mail and collaboration threats. It would support email and collaboration threat protection, not the stated on-premises identity attack detection.

C:

Cloud app security observes and governs cloud application activity. It would support SaaS usage threat control, not the stated on-premises identity attack detection.

D:

Endpoint detection collects process and device signals for threat response. Its purpose is endpoint process-level threat investigation; the specified need is on-premises identity attack detection.

Question 107

A device is actively infected and must be contained before remediation finishes. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Review threat analytics reports in the Defender security portal.
  2. Correlate identity, file and endpoint telemetry within the incident investigation.
  3. Isolate the affected endpoint through an approved Defender response action.
  4. Validate remediation and monitor for recurrence after recovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Isolation limits network communication while investigators work. This directly addresses immediate containment of a compromised endpoint.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Threat analytics synthesizes campaigns and defensive recommendations. The action is relevant to contextual intelligence about an active threat rather than immediate containment of a compromised endpoint.

B:

Correlated evidence reconstructs the activity across multiple workloads. This helps with incident scope from heterogeneous security signals instead of the required immediate containment of a compromised endpoint.

D:

Recovery verification checks that a threat is resolved and normal use is safe. This helps with post-remediation restoration confidence instead of the required immediate containment of a compromised endpoint.

Question 108

An external vendor's security account has been idle for months and should not retain active entitlement by default. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Use privileged role eligibility and activation rather than permanent assignment.
  2. Assign a supported read-only security role.
  3. Reduce the application permission scope before authorizing it.
  4. Review and revoke unnecessary vendor access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Periodic access review removes obsolete privileges. This directly addresses lifecycle cleanup of external privilege.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Time-bound elevation constrains standing administrative power. That addresses temporary privileged access, whereas the current case requires lifecycle cleanup of external privilege.

B:

Least-privilege RBAC separates investigation visibility from policy modification. It is used for observer rights for security telemetry; this scenario calls for lifecycle cleanup of external privilege.

C:

Narrowing application grants reduces data exposure if the workload is compromised. That addresses minimum data-access permissions for an app, whereas the current case requires lifecycle cleanup of external privilege.

Question 109

A production service uses one globally shared administrator secret across all environments. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Replace shared secrets with separate scoped workload identities.
  2. Enable appropriate audit collection and protected retention.
  3. Segment access paths and enforce least privilege between workloads.
  4. Revoke sessions and enforce account recovery for the affected identity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Segregated identities prevent one exposed credential from compromising all environments. This directly addresses bounded workload credential compromise.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Durable security logs preserve records for incident reconstruction. It would support recoverable event evidence after compromise, not the stated bounded workload credential compromise.

C:

Segmentation and narrow permissions reduce blast radius after initial compromise. Its purpose is limited lateral movement from a compromised workstation; the specified need is bounded workload credential compromise.

D:

Session revocation interrupts previously granted cloud access. It would support immediate containment of stolen sessions, not the stated bounded workload credential compromise.

Question 110

A SOC analyst needs host-based process creation details during malware execution. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Inspect Entra sign-in logs for that attempted login.
  2. Query supported Defender for Endpoint device events.
  3. Search relevant Microsoft Purview unified audit records.
  4. Inspect Microsoft Entra audit logs for the administrative change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Endpoint telemetry records device behaviors beyond identity administration logs. This directly addresses device execution evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sign-in records expose authentication outcomes and applicable conditions. This helps with interactive authentication troubleshooting instead of the required device execution evidence.

C:

Unified audit records capture supported user and admin actions across services. This helps with cross-service activity audit evidence instead of the required device execution evidence.

D:

Audit logs record directory configuration mutations. The action is relevant to attribution of configuration edits rather than device execution evidence.


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