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Last Update: Oct 06, 2026

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Microsoft AB-900 Practice Test 9

Question 80

A compromised Windows laptop shows suspicious processes that require endpoint detection and response. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Configure Microsoft Defender for Office 365 protection.
  2. Deploy Microsoft Defender for Identity where applicable.
  3. Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery and governance.
  4. Investigate the device using Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Endpoint detection collects process and device signals for threat response. This directly addresses endpoint process-level threat investigation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The Office workload product focuses on mail and collaboration threats. This helps with email and collaboration threat protection instead of the required endpoint process-level threat investigation.

B:

Defender for Identity observes supported identity infrastructure and activities. The action is relevant to on-premises identity attack detection rather than endpoint process-level threat investigation.

C:

Cloud app security observes and governs cloud application activity. This helps with SaaS usage threat control instead of the required endpoint process-level threat investigation.

Question 81

A new malware campaign is spreading and analysts want Microsoft's threat context and recommended mitigations. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Review threat analytics reports in the Defender security portal.
  2. Correlate identity, file and endpoint telemetry within the incident investigation.
  3. Isolate the affected endpoint through an approved Defender response action.
  4. Validate remediation and monitor for recurrence after recovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Threat analytics synthesizes campaigns and defensive recommendations. This directly addresses contextual intelligence about an active threat.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Correlated evidence reconstructs the activity across multiple workloads. That addresses incident scope from heterogeneous security signals, whereas the current case requires contextual intelligence about an active threat.

C:

Isolation limits network communication while investigators work. It is used for immediate containment of a compromised endpoint; this scenario calls for contextual intelligence about an active threat.

D:

Recovery verification checks that a threat is resolved and normal use is safe. That addresses post-remediation restoration confidence, whereas the current case requires contextual intelligence about an active threat.

Question 82

A security team must limit an analyst to reading incident dashboards, not changing detection settings. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Use privileged role eligibility and activation rather than permanent assignment.
  2. Assign a supported read-only security role.
  3. Reduce the application permission scope before authorizing it.
  4. Review and revoke unnecessary vendor access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Least-privilege RBAC separates investigation visibility from policy modification. This directly addresses observer rights for security telemetry.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Time-bound elevation constrains standing administrative power. It would support temporary privileged access, not the stated observer rights for security telemetry.

C:

Narrowing application grants reduces data exposure if the workload is compromised. It would support minimum data-access permissions for an app, not the stated observer rights for security telemetry.

D:

Periodic access review removes obsolete privileges. Its purpose is lifecycle cleanup of external privilege; the specified need is observer rights for security telemetry.

Question 83

A ransomware attack compromises one workstation, but the business wants to prevent lateral access to other workloads. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Replace shared secrets with separate scoped workload identities.
  2. Enable appropriate audit collection and protected retention.
  3. Segment access paths and enforce least privilege between workloads.
  4. Revoke sessions and enforce account recovery for the affected identity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Segmentation and narrow permissions reduce blast radius after initial compromise. This directly addresses limited lateral movement from a compromised workstation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Segregated identities prevent one exposed credential from compromising all environments. The action is relevant to bounded workload credential compromise rather than limited lateral movement from a compromised workstation.

B:

Durable security logs preserve records for incident reconstruction. This helps with recoverable event evidence after compromise instead of the required limited lateral movement from a compromised workstation.

D:

Session revocation interrupts previously granted cloud access. This helps with immediate containment of stolen sessions instead of the required limited lateral movement from a compromised workstation.

Question 84

An identity team needs proof of who changed a Conditional Access policy. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Inspect Entra sign-in logs for that attempted login.
  2. Query supported Defender for Endpoint device events.
  3. Search relevant Microsoft Purview unified audit records.
  4. Inspect Microsoft Entra audit logs for the administrative change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Audit logs record directory configuration mutations. This directly addresses attribution of configuration edits.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sign-in records expose authentication outcomes and applicable conditions. That addresses interactive authentication troubleshooting, whereas the current case requires attribution of configuration edits.

B:

Endpoint telemetry records device behaviors beyond identity administration logs. It is used for device execution evidence; this scenario calls for attribution of configuration edits.

C:

Unified audit records capture supported user and admin actions across services. That addresses cross-service activity audit evidence, whereas the current case requires attribution of configuration edits.

Question 85

A high-confidence compromised user must be prevented from accessing cloud resources now. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Block sign-in and revoke active sessions for the affected identity.
  2. Require a verified password reset and protect the new authentication factors.
  3. Review risky sign-ins and user-risk records together.
  4. Investigate related device alerts and remediation status in Defender.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Blocking new sign-ins and ending sessions interrupt account misuse. This directly addresses urgent compromised-user access containment.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Credential replacement invalidates the known compromised password. It would support recovery from password exposure, not the stated urgent compromised-user access containment.

C:

Risk dashboards correlate anomalies at sign-in and identity levels. Its purpose is account-focused anomalous access analysis; the specified need is urgent compromised-user access containment.

D:

Identity recovery alone does not prove endpoint compromise is resolved. It would support device-side assurance after an identity incident, not the stated urgent compromised-user access containment.

Question 86

A new helpdesk role should access only password resets and never broader identity policy administration. What is the most appropriate implementation?

  1. Verify explicitly with continuous context-aware access checks.
  2. Apply least-privilege role assignments.
  3. Design for assume-breach monitoring and containment.
  4. Require policy verification for each sensitive resource access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Limiting permissions reduces potential misuse or compromise of the assigned account. This directly addresses minimal rights for a defined support task.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Zero Trust verification evaluates identity and session context irrespective of network location. This helps with explicit verification instead of perimeter trust instead of the required minimal rights for a defined support task.

C:

Assuming breach prioritizes lateral-movement detection and impact reduction. This helps with containment of an already-compromised session instead of the required minimal rights for a defined support task.

D:

One trusted network path does not justify bypassing subsequent authorization. The action is relevant to repeated resource-specific trust decisions rather than minimal rights for a defined support task.

Question 87

A signed-in intern should be able to read only their team's records. Which action should the team take?

  1. Inspect the file's access-control membership and permissions.
  2. Authenticate the identity using an approved sign-in method.
  3. Apply resource authorization and scoped permissions.
  4. Use audit events associated with the actor and change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Authorization decides what an authenticated principal can perform. This directly addresses permission enforcement after sign-in.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authentication success does not override resource-level authorization. It is used for resolving missing file entitlements; this scenario calls for permission enforcement after sign-in.

B:

Authentication establishes the claimant's identity. That addresses validation of the sign-in principal, whereas the current case requires permission enforcement after sign-in.

D:

Audit records attribute administrative mutations to the responsible identity. That addresses accountability for privileged modifications, whereas the current case requires permission enforcement after sign-in.

Question 88

A mobile user should generate a short-lived numeric code in an approved authenticator app. What is the most appropriate implementation?

  1. Issue an eligible Microsoft Entra Temporary Access Pass.
  2. Configure supported multifactor authentication for eligible sign-ins.
  3. Configure supported FIDO2 or passkey sign-in.
  4. Use time-based one-time password authentication.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

TOTP creates rotating codes based on a shared secret and clock. This directly addresses rotating authenticator verification code.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Temporary Access Pass supports time-limited bootstrap of stronger authentication. It would support time-limited onboarding authentication, not the stated rotating authenticator verification code.

B:

MFA combines independent verification factors to reduce password-only risk. Its purpose is a policy requiring more than a password; the specified need is rotating authenticator verification code.

C:

FIDO credentials resist credential replay on fraudulent origins. It would support phishing-resistant authenticator, not the stated rotating authenticator verification code.

Question 89

A security team needs to distinguish risky credential ownership from one anomalous sign-in event. Which action should the team take?

  1. Evaluate user-risk and sign-in-risk signals separately.
  2. Apply a Conditional Access location condition with a block grant.
  3. Configure Conditional Access report-only mode for the proposed policy.
  4. Require additional authentication through risk-aware Conditional Access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

User risk concerns compromised account likelihood while sign-in risk concerns an event. This directly addresses differentiation of identity and event risk.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Explicit access block can enforce prohibited locations despite other grants. This helps with location-based access denial instead of the required differentiation of identity and event risk.

C:

Report-only records what a policy would do before enforcement. The action is relevant to simulated risk-policy deployment rather than differentiation of identity and event risk.

D:

Risk conditions can trigger stronger access controls for suspicious sessions. This helps with risk-adjusted interactive sign-in instead of the required differentiation of identity and event risk.

Question 90

Identity administrators want to improve sign-in and identity-specific configurations in Entra ID. What is the most appropriate implementation?

  1. Review Microsoft Secure Score recommended actions.
  2. Review Identity Secure Score and its identity recommendations.
  3. Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager improvement actions.
  4. Review the relevant Copilot usage and adoption reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Identity Secure Score evaluates identity protection configuration signals. This directly addresses Entra-focused identity hardening.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Microsoft Secure Score summarizes assessed security posture and improvement opportunities. That addresses broad Microsoft 365 security posture prioritization, whereas the current case requires Entra-focused identity hardening.

C:

Compliance Manager organizes assessment controls and evidence beyond security score. That addresses regulatory compliance improvement planning, whereas the current case requires Entra-focused identity hardening.

D:

Adoption metrics capture use patterns, not security configuration gaps. It is used for product usage measurement rather than security score; this scenario calls for Entra-focused identity hardening.


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