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Microsoft AB-900 Practice Test 10

Question 90

Identity administrators want to improve sign-in and identity-specific configurations in Entra ID. What is the most appropriate implementation?

  1. Review Microsoft Secure Score recommended actions.
  2. Review Identity Secure Score and its identity recommendations.
  3. Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager improvement actions.
  4. Review the relevant Copilot usage and adoption reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Identity Secure Score evaluates identity protection configuration signals. This directly addresses Entra-focused identity hardening.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Microsoft Secure Score summarizes assessed security posture and improvement opportunities. That addresses broad Microsoft 365 security posture prioritization, whereas the current case requires Entra-focused identity hardening.

C:

Compliance Manager organizes assessment controls and evidence beyond security score. That addresses regulatory compliance improvement planning, whereas the current case requires Entra-focused identity hardening.

D:

Adoption metrics capture use patterns, not security configuration gaps. It is used for product usage measurement rather than security score; this scenario calls for Entra-focused identity hardening.

Question 91

A hunter wants to query event telemetry across supported Defender tables using Kusto Query Language. Which action should the team take?

  1. Review the appropriate Defender XDR security dashboard and reporting trends.
  2. Investigate a cross-workload incident in Microsoft Defender XDR.
  3. Use advanced hunting in Microsoft Defender XDR.
  4. Open the relevant Defender XDR alert details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Advanced hunting supports query-based threat exploration over available event data. This directly addresses proactive event-based threat hunting.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security reporting summarizes incident and alert activity over time. Its purpose is aggregate threat detection trends; the specified need is proactive event-based threat hunting.

B:

Defender XDR groups related cross-product alerts into incidents. It would support unified threat investigation, not the stated proactive event-based threat hunting.

D:

Alerts contain the detection's individual evidence and context. It would support alert-level security evidence, not the stated proactive event-based threat hunting.

Question 92

A malicious file attachment should be detonated before employees can safely open it. What is the most appropriate implementation?

  1. Configure anti-phishing and impersonation protection policies.
  2. Use Defender email investigation or Threat Explorer where licensed.
  3. Configure Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policy.
  4. Apply Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Safe Attachments analyzes suspicious files using supported detonation workflows. This directly addresses malware inspection of email attachments.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Anti-phishing policy can evaluate spoofing and impersonation signals. This helps with executive impersonation defense instead of the required malware inspection of email attachments.

B:

Email investigation tools show message detections, delivery and remediation events. The action is relevant to investigating malicious mail delivery rather than malware inspection of email attachments.

C:

Safe Links evaluates URLs at time of user interaction where supported. This helps with URL-click protection for email and Office content instead of the required malware inspection of email attachments.

Question 93

An organization wants phishing and malicious attachment defenses for Microsoft 365 mailboxes. Which action should the team take?

  1. Configure Microsoft Defender for Office 365 protection.
  2. Deploy Microsoft Defender for Identity where applicable.
  3. Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery and governance.
  4. Investigate the device using Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The Office workload product focuses on mail and collaboration threats. This directly addresses email and collaboration threat protection.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Defender for Identity observes supported identity infrastructure and activities. That addresses on-premises identity attack detection, whereas the current case requires email and collaboration threat protection.

C:

Cloud app security observes and governs cloud application activity. It is used for SaaS usage threat control; this scenario calls for email and collaboration threat protection.

D:

Endpoint detection collects process and device signals for threat response. That addresses endpoint process-level threat investigation, whereas the current case requires email and collaboration threat protection.

Question 94

An incident responder must gather events showing how a suspicious account accessed sensitive files. What is the most appropriate implementation?

  1. Review threat analytics reports in the Defender security portal.
  2. Correlate identity, file and endpoint telemetry within the incident investigation.
  3. Isolate the affected endpoint through an approved Defender response action.
  4. Validate remediation and monitor for recurrence after recovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Correlated evidence reconstructs the activity across multiple workloads. This directly addresses incident scope from heterogeneous security signals.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Threat analytics synthesizes campaigns and defensive recommendations. It would support contextual intelligence about an active threat, not the stated incident scope from heterogeneous security signals.

C:

Isolation limits network communication while investigators work. It would support immediate containment of a compromised endpoint, not the stated incident scope from heterogeneous security signals.

D:

Recovery verification checks that a threat is resolved and normal use is safe. Its purpose is post-remediation restoration confidence; the specified need is incident scope from heterogeneous security signals.

Question 95

An application needs approval to access mailbox data but the request grants every mailbox in the tenant. Which action should the team take?

  1. Use privileged role eligibility and activation rather than permanent assignment.
  2. Assign a supported read-only security role.
  3. Reduce the application permission scope before authorizing it.
  4. Review and revoke unnecessary vendor access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Narrowing application grants reduces data exposure if the workload is compromised. This directly addresses minimum data-access permissions for an app.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Time-bound elevation constrains standing administrative power. The action is relevant to temporary privileged access rather than minimum data-access permissions for an app.

B:

Least-privilege RBAC separates investigation visibility from policy modification. This helps with observer rights for security telemetry instead of the required minimum data-access permissions for an app.

D:

Periodic access review removes obsolete privileges. This helps with lifecycle cleanup of external privilege instead of the required minimum data-access permissions for an app.

Question 96

A user credential is stolen and security wants to invalidate active cloud sessions promptly. What is the most appropriate implementation?

  1. Replace shared secrets with separate scoped workload identities.
  2. Enable appropriate audit collection and protected retention.
  3. Segment access paths and enforce least privilege between workloads.
  4. Revoke sessions and enforce account recovery for the affected identity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Session revocation interrupts previously granted cloud access. This directly addresses immediate containment of stolen sessions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Segregated identities prevent one exposed credential from compromising all environments. That addresses bounded workload credential compromise, whereas the current case requires immediate containment of stolen sessions.

B:

Durable security logs preserve records for incident reconstruction. It is used for recoverable event evidence after compromise; this scenario calls for immediate containment of stolen sessions.

C:

Segmentation and narrow permissions reduce blast radius after initial compromise. That addresses limited lateral movement from a compromised workstation, whereas the current case requires immediate containment of stolen sessions.

Question 97

A user repeatedly fails authentication and the team needs error codes and Conditional Access evaluation. Which action should the team take?

  1. Inspect Entra sign-in logs for that attempted login.
  2. Query supported Defender for Endpoint device events.
  3. Search relevant Microsoft Purview unified audit records.
  4. Inspect Microsoft Entra audit logs for the administrative change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Sign-in records expose authentication outcomes and applicable conditions. This directly addresses interactive authentication troubleshooting.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Endpoint telemetry records device behaviors beyond identity administration logs. It would support device execution evidence, not the stated interactive authentication troubleshooting.

C:

Unified audit records capture supported user and admin actions across services. Its purpose is cross-service activity audit evidence; the specified need is interactive authentication troubleshooting.

D:

Audit logs record directory configuration mutations. It would support attribution of configuration edits, not the stated interactive authentication troubleshooting.

Question 98

A user's password was disclosed externally and security needs to rotate the credential. What is the most appropriate implementation?

  1. Block sign-in and revoke active sessions for the affected identity.
  2. Require a verified password reset and protect the new authentication factors.
  3. Review risky sign-ins and user-risk records together.
  4. Investigate related device alerts and remediation status in Defender.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Credential replacement invalidates the known compromised password. This directly addresses recovery from password exposure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Blocking new sign-ins and ending sessions interrupt account misuse. This helps with urgent compromised-user access containment instead of the required recovery from password exposure.

C:

Risk dashboards correlate anomalies at sign-in and identity levels. This helps with account-focused anomalous access analysis instead of the required recovery from password exposure.

D:

Identity recovery alone does not prove endpoint compromise is resolved. The action is relevant to device-side assurance after an identity incident rather than recovery from password exposure.

Question 99

A security architect assumes a credential can be compromised and wants detection and containment inside the tenant. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Verify explicitly with continuous context-aware access checks.
  2. Apply least-privilege role assignments.
  3. Design for assume-breach monitoring and containment.
  4. Require policy verification for each sensitive resource access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Assuming breach prioritizes lateral-movement detection and impact reduction. This directly addresses containment of an already-compromised session.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Zero Trust verification evaluates identity and session context irrespective of network location. It is used for explicit verification instead of perimeter trust; this scenario calls for containment of an already-compromised session.

B:

Limiting permissions reduces potential misuse or compromise of the assigned account. That addresses minimal rights for a defined support task, whereas the current case requires containment of an already-compromised session.

D:

One trusted network path does not justify bypassing subsequent authorization. That addresses repeated resource-specific trust decisions, whereas the current case requires containment of an already-compromised session.

Question 100

A support session should show which identity made a privileged mailbox setting change. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Inspect the file's access-control membership and permissions.
  2. Authenticate the identity using an approved sign-in method.
  3. Apply resource authorization and scoped permissions.
  4. Use audit events associated with the actor and change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Audit records attribute administrative mutations to the responsible identity. This directly addresses accountability for privileged modifications.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authentication success does not override resource-level authorization. It would support resolving missing file entitlements, not the stated accountability for privileged modifications.

B:

Authentication establishes the claimant's identity. Its purpose is validation of the sign-in principal; the specified need is accountability for privileged modifications.

C:

Authorization decides what an authenticated principal can perform. It would support permission enforcement after sign-in, not the stated accountability for privileged modifications.


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