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AB-900 Premium File: 99 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 06, 2026

AB-900 PDF Study Guide: 314 Pages

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Microsoft AB-900 Practice Test 8

Question 70

The IT department needs to find which particular Microsoft 365 service plan is disabled for a user. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Choose a supported web-and-email Microsoft 365 subscription for eligible users.
  2. Choose a Microsoft 365 plan that explicitly includes desktop app rights.
  3. Review eligible add-on or higher-tier licensing for the requested security feature.
  4. Inspect the user's product license and service-plan status.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Enabled subservice detail determines actual feature availability. This directly addresses why a licensed user's feature is unavailable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Service entitlements should match web-mail needs without assuming installed apps. It would support lightweight web/email licensing, not the stated why a licensed user's feature is unavailable.

B:

Office desktop licensing is separate from web-only access. Its purpose is locally installed productivity entitlements; the specified need is why a licensed user's feature is unavailable.

C:

Premium protection features require matching service plans or add-on entitlement. It would support licensed advanced security capability, not the stated why a licensed user's feature is unavailable.

Question 71

Executives ask what verified domains are currently connected to the Microsoft 365 organization. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Review the Microsoft 365 admin center Domains inventory.
  2. Publish the exact verification TXT record and retry domain verification.
  3. Correct DNS MX records according to the approved Exchange Online configuration.
  4. Configure the appropriate default verified domain for new users.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Tenant domain inventory shows verified aliases and configuration health. This directly addresses inventory of organization-approved domains.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A verification token proves control of the domain namespace. This helps with prove tenant control of public domain instead of the required inventory of organization-approved domains.

C:

MX records direct inbound email delivery to the receiving mail system. The action is relevant to route incoming mail to the intended provider rather than inventory of organization-approved domains.

D:

The default domain influences new user principal names when created. This helps with default sign-in suffix for new accounts instead of the required inventory of organization-approved domains.

Question 72

Procurement wants to confirm paid capacity, renewals and assigned subscriptions. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Review the relevant Message center announcement.
  2. Use Microsoft 365 billing and subscription reporting.
  3. Open Microsoft 365 service health for Exchange Online status.
  4. Review Microsoft 365 usage reports for Teams adoption.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Billing reports address financial and purchased seat details. This directly addresses purchased and consumed subscription capacity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Message center posts describe upcoming service changes and actions. That addresses advance feature-release communication, whereas the current case requires purchased and consumed subscription capacity.

C:

Service health aggregates provider incident information rather than per-user adoption. That addresses provider service availability report, whereas the current case requires purchased and consumed subscription capacity.

D:

Usage reports summarize consumption trends by workload and user populations. It is used for Teams usage adoption statistics; this scenario calls for purchased and consumed subscription capacity.

Question 73

A company wants every privileged request evaluated using user, device and risk context instead of trusting the intranet. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Verify explicitly with continuous context-aware access checks.
  2. Apply least-privilege role assignments.
  3. Design for assume-breach monitoring and containment.
  4. Require policy verification for each sensitive resource access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Zero Trust verification evaluates identity and session context irrespective of network location. This directly addresses explicit verification instead of perimeter trust.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Limiting permissions reduces potential misuse or compromise of the assigned account. It would support minimal rights for a defined support task, not the stated explicit verification instead of perimeter trust.

C:

Assuming breach prioritizes lateral-movement detection and impact reduction. Its purpose is containment of an already-compromised session; the specified need is explicit verification instead of perimeter trust.

D:

One trusted network path does not justify bypassing subsequent authorization. It would support repeated resource-specific trust decisions, not the stated explicit verification instead of perimeter trust.

Question 74

A company must prove a person is who they claim to be before issuing an access token. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Inspect the file's access-control membership and permissions.
  2. Authenticate the identity using an approved sign-in method.
  3. Apply resource authorization and scoped permissions.
  4. Use audit events associated with the actor and change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Authentication establishes the claimant's identity. This directly addresses validation of the sign-in principal.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authentication success does not override resource-level authorization. This helps with resolving missing file entitlements instead of the required validation of the sign-in principal.

C:

Authorization decides what an authenticated principal can perform. This helps with permission enforcement after sign-in instead of the required validation of the sign-in principal.

D:

Audit records attribute administrative mutations to the responsible identity. The action is relevant to accountability for privileged modifications rather than validation of the sign-in principal.

Question 75

A phishing-resistant sign-in must use a physical authenticator whose assertion is bound to the relying-party site. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Issue an eligible Microsoft Entra Temporary Access Pass.
  2. Configure supported multifactor authentication for eligible sign-ins.
  3. Configure supported FIDO2 or passkey sign-in.
  4. Use time-based one-time password authentication.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

FIDO credentials resist credential replay on fraudulent origins. This directly addresses phishing-resistant authenticator.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Temporary Access Pass supports time-limited bootstrap of stronger authentication. It is used for time-limited onboarding authentication; this scenario calls for phishing-resistant authenticator.

B:

MFA combines independent verification factors to reduce password-only risk. That addresses a policy requiring more than a password, whereas the current case requires phishing-resistant authenticator.

D:

TOTP creates rotating codes based on a shared secret and clock. That addresses rotating authenticator verification code, whereas the current case requires phishing-resistant authenticator.

Question 76

A known user signs in from an impossible-travel pattern and the tenant should apply an elevated challenge. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Evaluate user-risk and sign-in-risk signals separately.
  2. Apply a Conditional Access location condition with a block grant.
  3. Configure Conditional Access report-only mode for the proposed policy.
  4. Require additional authentication through risk-aware Conditional Access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Risk conditions can trigger stronger access controls for suspicious sessions. This directly addresses risk-adjusted interactive sign-in.

Incorrect Answers

A:

User risk concerns compromised account likelihood while sign-in risk concerns an event. It would support differentiation of identity and event risk, not the stated risk-adjusted interactive sign-in.

B:

Explicit access block can enforce prohibited locations despite other grants. Its purpose is location-based access denial; the specified need is risk-adjusted interactive sign-in.

C:

Report-only records what a policy would do before enforcement. It would support simulated risk-policy deployment, not the stated risk-adjusted interactive sign-in.

Question 77

The security team wants a prioritized list of broad Microsoft 365 tenant hardening improvements. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Review Microsoft Secure Score recommended actions.
  2. Review Identity Secure Score and its identity recommendations.
  3. Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager improvement actions.
  4. Review the relevant Copilot usage and adoption reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Microsoft Secure Score summarizes assessed security posture and improvement opportunities. This directly addresses broad Microsoft 365 security posture prioritization.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Identity Secure Score evaluates identity protection configuration signals. This helps with Entra-focused identity hardening instead of the required broad Microsoft 365 security posture prioritization.

C:

Compliance Manager organizes assessment controls and evidence beyond security score. The action is relevant to regulatory compliance improvement planning rather than broad Microsoft 365 security posture prioritization.

D:

Adoption metrics capture use patterns, not security configuration gaps. This helps with product usage measurement rather than security score instead of the required broad Microsoft 365 security posture prioritization.

Question 78

An analyst needs to correlate endpoint alerts, identity alerts, and email detections into one investigation. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Review the appropriate Defender XDR security dashboard and reporting trends.
  2. Investigate a cross-workload incident in Microsoft Defender XDR.
  3. Use advanced hunting in Microsoft Defender XDR.
  4. Open the relevant Defender XDR alert details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Defender XDR groups related cross-product alerts into incidents. This directly addresses unified threat investigation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security reporting summarizes incident and alert activity over time. That addresses aggregate threat detection trends, whereas the current case requires unified threat investigation.

C:

Advanced hunting supports query-based threat exploration over available event data. That addresses proactive event-based threat hunting, whereas the current case requires unified threat investigation.

D:

Alerts contain the detection's individual evidence and context. It is used for alert-level security evidence; this scenario calls for unified threat investigation.

Question 79

Employees keep clicking URLs in suspicious messages and security wants post-delivery URL protection. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Configure anti-phishing and impersonation protection policies.
  2. Use Defender email investigation or Threat Explorer where licensed.
  3. Configure Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policy.
  4. Apply Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Safe Links evaluates URLs at time of user interaction where supported. This directly addresses URL-click protection for email and Office content.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Anti-phishing policy can evaluate spoofing and impersonation signals. Its purpose is executive impersonation defense; the specified need is URL-click protection for email and Office content.

B:

Email investigation tools show message detections, delivery and remediation events. It would support investigating malicious mail delivery, not the stated URL-click protection for email and Office content.

D:

Safe Attachments analyzes suspicious files using supported detonation workflows. It would support malware inspection of email attachments, not the stated URL-click protection for email and Office content.

Question 80

A compromised Windows laptop shows suspicious processes that require endpoint detection and response. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Configure Microsoft Defender for Office 365 protection.
  2. Deploy Microsoft Defender for Identity where applicable.
  3. Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery and governance.
  4. Investigate the device using Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Endpoint detection collects process and device signals for threat response. This directly addresses endpoint process-level threat investigation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The Office workload product focuses on mail and collaboration threats. This helps with email and collaboration threat protection instead of the required endpoint process-level threat investigation.

B:

Defender for Identity observes supported identity infrastructure and activities. The action is relevant to on-premises identity attack detection rather than endpoint process-level threat investigation.

C:

Cloud app security observes and governs cloud application activity. This helps with SaaS usage threat control instead of the required endpoint process-level threat investigation.


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