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AB-900 Premium File: 99 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 06, 2026

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Microsoft AB-900 Practice Test 6

Question 50

The team needs a shared coauthoring file where members have access through their channel. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Store the file in the Teams channel's associated SharePoint library.
  2. Schedule a Teams meeting with the applicable policy settings.
  3. Start a Teams chat between the employees.
  4. Post a conversation in its Teams channel.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Teams channel files are backed by the applicable SharePoint location. This directly addresses collaboratively edited team file.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Meetings provide real-time calls and managed attendee experiences. The action is relevant to synchronous scheduled meeting rather than collaboratively edited team file.

C:

Chat provides direct message collaboration independent of team channel membership. This helps with direct interpersonal discussion instead of the required collaboratively edited team file.

D:

Channel conversations are associated with the team workspace. The action is relevant to team-visible long-lived discussion rather than collaboratively edited team file.

Question 51

A publicly distributable press brochure must be viewable without visitor sign-in, if tenant policy allows it. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Share with specified people under the site's approved external sharing policy.
  2. Create an Anyone link under explicitly approved sharing controls.
  3. Use an organization-scoped sharing link under SharePoint policy.
  4. Use an existing-access link where supported.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Anyone links enable possession-based access without authentication and require risk review. This directly addresses anonymous access to intended public material.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Specific-people links grant only the identified invited recipients. It is used for limited named external sharing; this scenario calls for anonymous access to intended public material.

C:

Organization links limit link-based access to eligible internal principals. It is used for tenant-internal document reach; this scenario calls for anonymous access to intended public material.

D:

Existing-access links do not by themselves grant new permissions. That addresses a link without new access grants, whereas the current case requires anonymous access to intended public material.

Question 52

Security wants advanced protection controls not included in an existing basic subscription. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Choose a supported web-and-email Microsoft 365 subscription for eligible users.
  2. Choose a Microsoft 365 plan that explicitly includes desktop app rights.
  3. Review eligible add-on or higher-tier licensing for the requested security feature.
  4. Inspect the user's product license and service-plan status.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Premium protection features require matching service plans or add-on entitlement. This directly addresses licensed advanced security capability.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Service entitlements should match web-mail needs without assuming installed apps. It would support lightweight web/email licensing, not the stated licensed advanced security capability.

B:

Office desktop licensing is separate from web-only access. Its purpose is locally installed productivity entitlements; the specified need is licensed advanced security capability.

D:

Enabled subservice detail determines actual feature availability. Its purpose is why a licensed user's feature is unavailable; the specified need is licensed advanced security capability.

Question 53

New accounts should use the organization's verified custom sign-in domain by default. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Review the Microsoft 365 admin center Domains inventory.
  2. Publish the exact verification TXT record and retry domain verification.
  3. Correct DNS MX records according to the approved Exchange Online configuration.
  4. Configure the appropriate default verified domain for new users.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The default domain influences new user principal names when created. This directly addresses default sign-in suffix for new accounts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Tenant domain inventory shows verified aliases and configuration health. The action is relevant to inventory of organization-approved domains rather than default sign-in suffix for new accounts.

B:

A verification token proves control of the domain namespace. This helps with prove tenant control of public domain instead of the required default sign-in suffix for new accounts.

C:

MX records direct inbound email delivery to the receiving mail system. The action is relevant to route incoming mail to the intended provider rather than default sign-in suffix for new accounts.

Question 54

An administrator needs official instructions about a coming SharePoint change before rollout. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Review the relevant Message center announcement.
  2. Use Microsoft 365 billing and subscription reporting.
  3. Open Microsoft 365 service health for Exchange Online status.
  4. Review Microsoft 365 usage reports for Teams adoption.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Message center posts describe upcoming service changes and actions. This directly addresses advance feature-release communication.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Billing reports address financial and purchased seat details. It is used for purchased and consumed subscription capacity; this scenario calls for advance feature-release communication.

C:

Service health aggregates provider incident information rather than per-user adoption. That addresses provider service availability report, whereas the current case requires advance feature-release communication.

D:

Usage reports summarize consumption trends by workload and user populations. It is used for Teams usage adoption statistics; this scenario calls for advance feature-release communication.

Question 55

Finance suspects the tenant has fewer unused license seats than the deployment requires. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Review subscription seat totals and assignment counts in Microsoft 365 billing.
  2. Assign the product license to the Microsoft Entra group.
  3. Assign the eligible product license directly to the executive account.
  4. Adjust the assigned license service plans for that group.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Available and assigned seat counts expose whether more capacity is needed. This directly addresses accurate remaining license capacity.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Group-based licensing evaluates members and automates eligible license assignment. It would support automatic entitlements for changing group membership, not the stated accurate remaining license capacity.

C:

A direct assignment targets one named identity rather than an entire cohort. Its purpose is a single named user subscription; the specified need is accurate remaining license capacity.

D:

Service-plan settings govern which subservices within an eligible product are enabled. It would support feature-level entitlements within the license, not the stated accurate remaining license capacity.

Question 56

A support team must identify new Microsoft 365 feature changes scheduled for its tenant. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Inspect the service health dashboard in the Microsoft 365 admin center.
  2. Review the Microsoft 365 Message center notices.
  3. Add and verify the domain through the Microsoft 365 admin center with the requested DNS record.
  4. Review and update organization settings in the Microsoft 365 admin center.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Message center announcements communicate feature rollout and required admin actions. This directly addresses planned service change notices.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Service health tracks provider incidents and advisories by workload. This helps with official current service incident visibility instead of the required planned service change notices.

C:

Domain verification establishes control of the organization namespace. This helps with verified custom tenant domain instead of the required planned service change notices.

D:

Organization settings govern tenant-level service preferences and contact data. The action is relevant to central organization profile administration rather than planned service change notices.

Question 57

Members of a project need a shared mailbox and collaborative SharePoint workspace in one group. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Configure a shared mailbox and delegate access to the agents.
  2. Create a distribution group for the recipients.
  3. Create a Microsoft 365 group for the project.
  4. Use a licensed user mailbox for the employee.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Microsoft 365 groups provide linked collaborative services, including a group mailbox and site. This directly addresses integrated membership-backed collaboration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared mailbox delegation supports a team-operated inbox under one address. It is used for jointly handled helpdesk messages; this scenario calls for integrated membership-backed collaboration.

B:

Distribution groups expand mail addressed to a group into member delivery. That addresses mail-only announcement distribution, whereas the current case requires integrated membership-backed collaboration.

D:

A user mailbox is associated with the person's account and personal work mail. That addresses personal employee messaging, whereas the current case requires integrated membership-backed collaboration.

Question 58

A service mailbox must automatically refuse new messages while a temporary workflow is suspended. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Configure a scoped mail flow rule in the Exchange admin center.
  2. Run message trace in the Exchange admin center.
  3. Configure the domain as an accepted domain in Exchange Online.
  4. Configure an appropriate mail-receive restriction on the mailbox.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Recipient restrictions prevent delivery according to the specified recipient configuration. This directly addresses limited receipt for the affected mailbox.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Transport rules evaluate message attributes and apply routing or protection actions. It would support custom message processing conditions, not the stated limited receipt for the affected mailbox.

B:

Message trace records transport events and delivery status for mail. Its purpose is individual mail delivery troubleshooting; the specified need is limited receipt for the affected mailbox.

C:

Accepted domains identify namespaces the organization handles for mail. It would support accepted inbound email namespace, not the stated limited receipt for the affected mailbox.

Question 59

A procurement team needs structured item records with columns and views rather than document uploads. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Create a SharePoint list with the required columns.
  2. Create an appropriate SharePoint site for that department.
  3. Create a document library within its SharePoint site.
  4. Add folders within the existing document library.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Lists manage structured rows and business records. This directly addresses structured nonfile tracking records.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Sites form independent workspace boundaries with their own membership and content. This helps with a department-wide collaborative container instead of the required structured nonfile tracking records.

C:

Libraries provide file storage, versioning and metadata in the site. The action is relevant to managed documents with versions rather than structured nonfile tracking records.

D:

Folders group library items without creating a separate site or library. This helps with hierarchical filing within a library instead of the required structured nonfile tracking records.

Question 60

One confidential file must have a more restrictive authorized audience than its containing library. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Assign the SharePoint site Visitors read role.
  2. Review and set unique permissions on that item where justified.
  3. Assign the appropriate SharePoint site Owners role.
  4. Add contributors as SharePoint site Members with edit access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Item-level permission exceptions can restrict access compared with inherited container rules. This directly addresses a justified one-file permission exception.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Visitors are granted view access rather than content modification. That addresses read-only site access, whereas the current case requires a justified one-file permission exception.

C:

Owners are responsible for site administration and permissions. That addresses administering the SharePoint site, whereas the current case requires a justified one-file permission exception.

D:

Members can work on site content without the owner-level management responsibility. It is used for routine content contribution; this scenario calls for a justified one-file permission exception.


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