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Last Update: Oct 06, 2026

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Microsoft AB-900 Practice Test 12

Question 110

A SOC analyst needs host-based process creation details during malware execution. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Inspect Entra sign-in logs for that attempted login.
  2. Query supported Defender for Endpoint device events.
  3. Search relevant Microsoft Purview unified audit records.
  4. Inspect Microsoft Entra audit logs for the administrative change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Endpoint telemetry records device behaviors beyond identity administration logs. This directly addresses device execution evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sign-in records expose authentication outcomes and applicable conditions. This helps with interactive authentication troubleshooting instead of the required device execution evidence.

C:

Unified audit records capture supported user and admin actions across services. This helps with cross-service activity audit evidence instead of the required device execution evidence.

D:

Audit logs record directory configuration mutations. The action is relevant to attribution of configuration edits rather than device execution evidence.

Question 111

An administrator wants to know whether suspicious sign-in alerts are clustered around one account. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Block sign-in and revoke active sessions for the affected identity.
  2. Require a verified password reset and protect the new authentication factors.
  3. Review risky sign-ins and user-risk records together.
  4. Investigate related device alerts and remediation status in Defender.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Risk dashboards correlate anomalies at sign-in and identity levels. This directly addresses account-focused anomalous access analysis.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Blocking new sign-ins and ending sessions interrupt account misuse. It is used for urgent compromised-user access containment; this scenario calls for account-focused anomalous access analysis.

B:

Credential replacement invalidates the known compromised password. That addresses recovery from password exposure, whereas the current case requires account-focused anomalous access analysis.

D:

Identity recovery alone does not prove endpoint compromise is resolved. That addresses device-side assurance after an identity incident, whereas the current case requires account-focused anomalous access analysis.

Question 112

A team proposes unrestricted trust because an employee previously authenticated on the corporate VPN. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Verify explicitly with continuous context-aware access checks.
  2. Apply least-privilege role assignments.
  3. Design for assume-breach monitoring and containment.
  4. Require policy verification for each sensitive resource access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

One trusted network path does not justify bypassing subsequent authorization. This directly addresses repeated resource-specific trust decisions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Zero Trust verification evaluates identity and session context irrespective of network location. It would support explicit verification instead of perimeter trust, not the stated repeated resource-specific trust decisions.

B:

Limiting permissions reduces potential misuse or compromise of the assigned account. Its purpose is minimal rights for a defined support task; the specified need is repeated resource-specific trust decisions.

C:

Assuming breach prioritizes lateral-movement detection and impact reduction. It would support containment of an already-compromised session, not the stated repeated resource-specific trust decisions.

Question 113

A user is already authenticated but a file denies access because it is outside their group. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Inspect the file's access-control membership and permissions.
  2. Authenticate the identity using an approved sign-in method.
  3. Apply resource authorization and scoped permissions.
  4. Use audit events associated with the actor and change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Authentication success does not override resource-level authorization. This directly addresses resolving missing file entitlements.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Authentication establishes the claimant's identity. This helps with validation of the sign-in principal instead of the required resolving missing file entitlements.

C:

Authorization decides what an authenticated principal can perform. The action is relevant to permission enforcement after sign-in rather than resolving missing file entitlements.

D:

Audit records attribute administrative mutations to the responsible identity. This helps with accountability for privileged modifications instead of the required resolving missing file entitlements.

Question 114

A company wants to enforce a second factor beyond just knowing a password. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Issue an eligible Microsoft Entra Temporary Access Pass.
  2. Configure supported multifactor authentication for eligible sign-ins.
  3. Configure supported FIDO2 or passkey sign-in.
  4. Use time-based one-time password authentication.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

MFA combines independent verification factors to reduce password-only risk. This directly addresses a policy requiring more than a password.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Temporary Access Pass supports time-limited bootstrap of stronger authentication. That addresses time-limited onboarding authentication, whereas the current case requires a policy requiring more than a password.

C:

FIDO credentials resist credential replay on fraudulent origins. That addresses phishing-resistant authenticator, whereas the current case requires a policy requiring more than a password.

D:

TOTP creates rotating codes based on a shared secret and clock. It is used for rotating authenticator verification code; this scenario calls for a policy requiring more than a password.

Question 115

An app administrator wants a proposed risk condition evaluated without immediately blocking employees. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Evaluate user-risk and sign-in-risk signals separately.
  2. Apply a Conditional Access location condition with a block grant.
  3. Configure Conditional Access report-only mode for the proposed policy.
  4. Require additional authentication through risk-aware Conditional Access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Report-only records what a policy would do before enforcement. This directly addresses simulated risk-policy deployment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

User risk concerns compromised account likelihood while sign-in risk concerns an event. Its purpose is differentiation of identity and event risk; the specified need is simulated risk-policy deployment.

B:

Explicit access block can enforce prohibited locations despite other grants. It would support location-based access denial, not the stated simulated risk-policy deployment.

D:

Risk conditions can trigger stronger access controls for suspicious sessions. It would support risk-adjusted interactive sign-in, not the stated simulated risk-policy deployment.

Question 116

The adoption lead needs metrics about how staff use Copilot rather than tenant security strength. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Review Microsoft Secure Score recommended actions.
  2. Review Identity Secure Score and its identity recommendations.
  3. Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager improvement actions.
  4. Review the relevant Copilot usage and adoption reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Adoption metrics capture use patterns, not security configuration gaps. This directly addresses product usage measurement rather than security score.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Microsoft Secure Score summarizes assessed security posture and improvement opportunities. This helps with broad Microsoft 365 security posture prioritization instead of the required product usage measurement rather than security score.

B:

Identity Secure Score evaluates identity protection configuration signals. The action is relevant to Entra-focused identity hardening rather than product usage measurement rather than security score.

C:

Compliance Manager organizes assessment controls and evidence beyond security score. This helps with regulatory compliance improvement planning instead of the required product usage measurement rather than security score.

Question 117

Leadership asks whether current Defender detections are trending up over a period. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Review the appropriate Defender XDR security dashboard and reporting trends.
  2. Investigate a cross-workload incident in Microsoft Defender XDR.
  3. Use advanced hunting in Microsoft Defender XDR.
  4. Open the relevant Defender XDR alert details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Security reporting summarizes incident and alert activity over time. This directly addresses aggregate threat detection trends.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Defender XDR groups related cross-product alerts into incidents. That addresses unified threat investigation, whereas the current case requires aggregate threat detection trends.

C:

Advanced hunting supports query-based threat exploration over available event data. It is used for proactive event-based threat hunting; this scenario calls for aggregate threat detection trends.

D:

Alerts contain the detection's individual evidence and context. That addresses alert-level security evidence, whereas the current case requires aggregate threat detection trends.

Question 118

A suspicious message already reached the tenant and analysts must understand delivery and remediation status. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Configure anti-phishing and impersonation protection policies.
  2. Use Defender email investigation or Threat Explorer where licensed.
  3. Configure Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policy.
  4. Apply Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Email investigation tools show message detections, delivery and remediation events. This directly addresses investigating malicious mail delivery.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Anti-phishing policy can evaluate spoofing and impersonation signals. It would support executive impersonation defense, not the stated investigating malicious mail delivery.

C:

Safe Links evaluates URLs at time of user interaction where supported. It would support URL-click protection for email and Office content, not the stated investigating malicious mail delivery.

D:

Safe Attachments analyzes suspicious files using supported detonation workflows. Its purpose is malware inspection of email attachments; the specified need is investigating malicious mail delivery.

Question 119

Administrators need visibility into connected cloud application use and risky SaaS behaviors. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Configure Microsoft Defender for Office 365 protection.
  2. Deploy Microsoft Defender for Identity where applicable.
  3. Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery and governance.
  4. Investigate the device using Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Cloud app security observes and governs cloud application activity. This directly addresses SaaS usage threat control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The Office workload product focuses on mail and collaboration threats. The action is relevant to email and collaboration threat protection rather than SaaS usage threat control.

B:

Defender for Identity observes supported identity infrastructure and activities. This helps with on-premises identity attack detection instead of the required SaaS usage threat control.

D:

Endpoint detection collects process and device signals for threat response. This helps with endpoint process-level threat investigation instead of the required SaaS usage threat control.

Question 120

A detected malicious file has been quarantined and the team must restore service safely. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Review threat analytics reports in the Defender security portal.
  2. Correlate identity, file and endpoint telemetry within the incident investigation.
  3. Isolate the affected endpoint through an approved Defender response action.
  4. Validate remediation and monitor for recurrence after recovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Recovery verification checks that a threat is resolved and normal use is safe. This directly addresses post-remediation restoration confidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Threat analytics synthesizes campaigns and defensive recommendations. That addresses contextual intelligence about an active threat, whereas the current case requires post-remediation restoration confidence.

B:

Correlated evidence reconstructs the activity across multiple workloads. It is used for incident scope from heterogeneous security signals; this scenario calls for post-remediation restoration confidence.

C:

Isolation limits network communication while investigators work. That addresses immediate containment of a compromised endpoint, whereas the current case requires post-remediation restoration confidence.


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