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Microsoft AB-900 Practice Test 15

Question 140

A supplier must access one invited SharePoint site with their existing company login. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Configure cross-tenant access and external collaboration restrictions.
  2. Run an access review and remove the unneeded guest entitlement.
  3. Configure Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration for an invited guest.
  4. Configure B2B direct connect and required cross-tenant policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

B2B collaboration grants scoped resource access to external identities. This directly addresses ordinary external guest collaboration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Tenant collaboration policies govern permitted partner organizations. This helps with partner domain allow/deny governance instead of the required ordinary external guest collaboration.

B:

Review-based cleanup reduces persistence of abandoned partner access. The action is relevant to expired external collaboration rights rather than ordinary external guest collaboration.

D:

Direct connect supports certain cross-organization shared-channel experiences. The action is relevant to cross-tenant Teams shared-channel participation rather than ordinary external guest collaboration.

Question 141

Users signing in on approved shared PCs need a portable phishing-resistant key. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Deploy Windows Hello for Business.
  2. Use a Microsoft Entra Temporary Access Pass.
  3. Configure Microsoft Authenticator push or number matching as supported.
  4. Use a supported FIDO2 security key or passkey.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

FIDO2 authenticator assertions resist phishing and can be portable. This directly addresses external roaming security-key sign-in.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Windows Hello protects asymmetric credentials with a device-local user gesture. It is used for device-bound passwordless Windows sign-in; this scenario calls for external roaming security-key sign-in.

B:

TAP is designed for controlled bootstrap and account recovery. That addresses initial credential enrollment, whereas the current case requires external roaming security-key sign-in.

C:

Authenticator approvals add an interactive possession-based sign-in step. It is used for mobile authenticator challenge; this scenario calls for external roaming security-key sign-in.

Question 142

Developers need to expose a new web app to Microsoft Entra identity federation. Which Microsoft 365 capability is MOST appropriate?

  1. Configure the application's registration and redirect settings.
  2. Require assignment to the enterprise application service principal.
  3. Use delegated permission scopes for the signed-in user.
  4. Configure approved application permissions for the workload principal.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

App registration defines the OAuth/OIDC client identity. This directly addresses initial app integration configuration.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Enterprise app assignments govern permitted organizational access. Its purpose is targeted enterprise application usage; the specified need is initial app integration configuration.

C:

Delegated scopes act under user identity and permissions. It would support per-user API authorization, not the stated initial app integration configuration.

D:

App-only grants permit background operations within authorized scope. Its purpose is unattended app API execution; the specified need is initial app integration configuration.

Question 143

A group of eligible employees should receive a license automatically based on membership. Which approach solves the stated need?

  1. Review the PIM eligible and active role assignment states.
  2. Use group-based license assignment.
  3. Define approved named locations in Conditional Access.
  4. Scope authentication methods policies to approved groups.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Directory membership can trigger license assignment and removal. This directly addresses lifecycle-based license provisioning.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Eligibility indicates potential activation; active state indicates current authority. The action is relevant to accurate temporary privilege state rather than lifecycle-based license provisioning.

C:

Named locations provide reusable network context for sign-in conditions. The action is relevant to trusted office network classification rather than lifecycle-based license provisioning.

D:

Authentication method policy governs permitted method populations. This helps with targeted stronger authentication enrollment instead of the required lifecycle-based license provisioning.

Question 144

A partner must enter a SharePoint project without a new internal employment account. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Invite a B2B guest identity with specific resource access.
  2. Manage its enterprise application service principal.
  3. Use a Microsoft Entra security group for app access assignment.
  4. Create a Microsoft Entra member user.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Guest access allows limited collaboration while retaining external identity origin. This directly addresses access for a named external partner.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The service principal represents an application instance in the directory. It is used for tenant-scoped enterprise application identity; this scenario calls for access for a named external partner.

C:

Group membership enables reusable access targeting. That addresses cohort-based application authorization, whereas the current case requires access for a named external partner.

D:

Member identities represent primary internal workforce accounts. It is used for an internal organization identity; this scenario calls for access for a named external partner.

Question 145

A policy must require MFA when a specified user cohort requests the application. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Target the specific cloud application in the policy assignments.
  2. Configure an appropriate MFA grant control for the eligible users.
  3. Configure the supported location condition with a block access policy.
  4. Set the proposed Conditional Access policy to report-only mode.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Grant controls define conditions that a sign-in must satisfy. This directly addresses required additional authentication for selected users.

Incorrect Answers

A:

App selection determines which resource sign-ins are evaluated. Its purpose is scope of a particular protected app; the specified need is required additional authentication for selected users.

C:

Network conditions and block decisions enforce location restrictions. Its purpose is explicit access denial from restricted locations; the specified need is required additional authentication for selected users.

D:

Report-only evaluations record prospective outcomes without enforcement. It would support safe policy impact analysis, not the stated required additional authentication for selected users.

Question 146

A security reviewer suspects an executive account is compromised across several sign-in events. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Review the Microsoft Entra Identity Secure Score recommendations.
  2. Inspect Microsoft Entra sign-in logs for the attempt.
  3. Examine Microsoft Entra Identity Protection user-risk detections.
  4. Search Microsoft Entra audit logs for the policy mutation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

User-risk signals assess possible identity compromise. This directly addresses aggregated account compromise risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Identity Secure Score emphasizes identity control maturity and opportunities. This helps with identity-wide recommended hardening actions instead of the required aggregated account compromise risk.

B:

Sign-in logs show application, error code and Conditional Access outcome. The action is relevant to failed sign-in evidence rather than aggregated account compromise risk.

D:

Directory audit events attribute administrative changes. The action is relevant to author and time of policy change rather than aggregated account compromise risk.

Question 147

A modern web app uses OpenID Connect to establish the user's identity through Microsoft Entra. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Evaluate a supported password-based SSO integration and its limitations.
  2. Enable supported seamless authentication and SSO configuration.
  3. Configure an enterprise application for SAML-based single sign-on.
  4. Configure the app's OIDC sign-in integration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

OIDC adds identity tokens over an OAuth-based authorization flow. This directly addresses OIDC identity federation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Password-based SSO can store and supply credentials for incompatible legacy apps. It is used for legacy password-oriented app access; this scenario calls for OIDC identity federation.

B:

Seamless SSO uses existing authenticated context where protocols and policies allow. That addresses reduced repeated prompts in managed sessions, whereas the current case requires OIDC identity federation.

C:

SAML exchanges signed assertions for federated application authentication. It is used for standards-based SAML sign-in; this scenario calls for OIDC identity federation.

Question 148

Security requires independent approval before a sensitive admin role can be activated. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Configure an approver requirement in the PIM activation settings.
  2. Review PIM role assignment schedules and expiration.
  3. Inspect PIM audit history and activation records.
  4. Configure eligible assignment and activation in Microsoft Entra PIM.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Approval gates enforce oversight on privileged activation. This directly addresses independently approved privilege activation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

PIM reports expose eligible and active role assignment lifetimes. Its purpose is upcoming privileged entitlement expiry; the specified need is independently approved privilege activation.

C:

Privileged activity logs attribute activation decisions and timestamps. It would support accountable temporary role usage, not the stated independently approved privilege activation.

D:

PIM eligibility separates standing rights from temporary activated privileges. Its purpose is just-in-time role elevation; the specified need is independently approved privilege activation.

Question 149

Tenant admins must assign employees access to an already integrated SaaS application. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Create and configure a Microsoft Entra app registration.
  2. Manage the Microsoft Entra enterprise application instance.
  3. Use a supported managed identity with scoped permissions.
  4. Review and grant only approved application permissions via admin consent.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Enterprise apps represent tenant-local service principals and user assignments. This directly addresses tenant access to deployed SaaS app.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Registration stores the application's identity configuration and API permission declaration. The action is relevant to developer-side application identity definition rather than tenant access to deployed SaaS app.

C:

Managed identities provision service identity tokens without customer-managed credentials. The action is relevant to passwordless Azure workload identity rather than tenant access to deployed SaaS app.

D:

Tenant-level application grants require privileged review and scope controls. This helps with governance of application-level API access instead of the required tenant access to deployed SaaS app.

Question 150

A background job must read approved shared metadata without any interactive employee. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Inspect application permissions and consent grants in Entra ID.
  2. Request an appropriate delegated Microsoft Graph scope.
  3. Request an approved application permission with a workload identity.
  4. Require administrator review for permission scopes beyond user consent authority.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Application permissions support app-only access independent of a user session. This directly addresses unattended API access with no user.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Consent inventory reveals existing delegated and app-only authorization. That addresses review of existing app API privileges, whereas the current case requires unattended API access with no user.

B:

Delegated permissions operate within the signed-in user's effective rights. It is used for per-user constrained API access; this scenario calls for unattended API access with no user.

D:

Admin consent governs permissions that exceed user grant rights. It is used for elevated consent for high-impact API scopes; this scenario calls for unattended API access with no user.


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