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Microsoft AB-900 Practice Test 16

Question 150

A background job must read approved shared metadata without any interactive employee. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Inspect application permissions and consent grants in Entra ID.
  2. Request an appropriate delegated Microsoft Graph scope.
  3. Request an approved application permission with a workload identity.
  4. Require administrator review for permission scopes beyond user consent authority.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Application permissions support app-only access independent of a user session. This directly addresses unattended API access with no user.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Consent inventory reveals existing delegated and app-only authorization. That addresses review of existing app API privileges, whereas the current case requires unattended API access with no user.

B:

Delegated permissions operate within the signed-in user's effective rights. It is used for per-user constrained API access; this scenario calls for unattended API access with no user.

D:

Admin consent governs permissions that exceed user grant rights. It is used for elevated consent for high-impact API scopes; this scenario calls for unattended API access with no user.

Question 151

An older enterprise app requires Windows devices that preserve both AD domain and cloud trust state. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Require an approved authentication strength in Conditional Access.
  2. Apply a policy with risk conditions and the block access grant.
  3. Require a compliant device in Microsoft Entra Conditional Access.
  4. Require an appropriately hybrid-joined device where supported.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Hybrid-join grant conditions assess the required device trust. This directly addresses hybrid device-trust gated access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authentication strength constrains eligible methods beyond generic MFA. Its purpose is stronger phishing-resistant sign-in methods; the specified need is hybrid device-trust gated access.

B:

Risk-based block access prevents a session rather than permitting a second-factor bypass. It would support risk-triggered denial, not the stated hybrid device-trust gated access.

C:

The grant relies on evaluated management compliance state. Its purpose is access only from policy-compliant endpoints; the specified need is hybrid device-trust gated access.

Question 152

A secure working group must have every member approved manually by an owner. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Use assigned group membership with an approval process.
  2. Use supported entitlement management access packages.
  3. Use PIM eligible role activation instead of permanent role assignment.
  4. Configure a Microsoft Entra dynamic group membership rule.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Assigned groups allow direct intentional membership control. This directly addresses curated manually approved group access.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Access packages automate approved and time-limited resource assignment. The action is relevant to request-based temporary bundle access rather than curated manually approved group access.

C:

PIM reduces standing role access through controlled activation. This helps with temporary high-privilege access instead of the required curated manually approved group access.

D:

Dynamic groups evaluate member properties without manual updates. The action is relevant to attribute-driven group population rather than curated manually approved group access.

Question 153

An administrator needs to restrict which workforce groups can register FIDO2 passkeys. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Issue a policy-approved Temporary Access Pass.
  2. Configure the authentication methods policy for eligible groups.
  3. Reset or re-register permitted user authentication methods.
  4. Review the user's authentication methods and registration details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Method policies control allowed registration and use of methods. This directly addresses scoped passkey eligibility.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Temporary Access Pass supports bootstrapping and recovery of strong authentication. It is used for first-time credential bootstrap; this scenario calls for scoped passkey eligibility.

C:

Removing obsolete method registration enables controlled credential recovery. It is used for safe replacement of an authentication device; this scenario calls for scoped passkey eligibility.

D:

Method inventory reports which factors are enrolled. That addresses current factor enrollment evidence, whereas the current case requires scoped passkey eligibility.

Question 154

A legitimate user is blocked because a specific sign-in appears anomalous. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Revoke the account's sign-in sessions and perform approved recovery.
  2. Investigate and remediate Microsoft Entra risky users.
  3. Review the risky sign-in detection and supporting details.
  4. Apply the supported dismissal or remediation workflow for user risk.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Sign-in risk reports assess one authentication event. This directly addresses troubleshooting one anomalous authentication.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Session revocation prevents continued reuse of outstanding authentication sessions. It would support termination of active compromised sign-ins, not the stated troubleshooting one anomalous authentication.

B:

User risk evaluates the likelihood of a compromised identity. Its purpose is response to account-level compromise; the specified need is troubleshooting one anomalous authentication.

D:

Risk remediation records resolution after recovery action. Its purpose is clearing a verified recovered user-risk case; the specified need is troubleshooting one anomalous authentication.

Question 155

An admin changed a group membership and the auditor wants the actor and timestamp. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Inspect Microsoft Entra provisioning logs for the target application.
  2. Review both sign-in and audit log evidence in the investigation.
  3. Query the Microsoft Entra sign-in log for the attempt.
  4. Query Microsoft Entra audit logs for the directory update.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Audit events record administrative directory object changes. This directly addresses attribution of directory updates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Provisioning logs report account synchronization and processing outcomes. The action is relevant to app identity provisioning diagnostics rather than attribution of directory updates.

B:

Authentication and administrative activity are separate but complementary evidence streams. This helps with end-to-end identity incident timeline instead of the required attribution of directory updates.

C:

Sign-in records capture authentication results and policy enforcement. The action is relevant to per-attempt sign-in investigation rather than attribution of directory updates.

Question 156

An admin must determine whether a named user is covered by a proposed policy configuration. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Use the Conditional Access What If tool with the applicable sign-in conditions.
  2. Inspect the sign-in log Conditional Access results.
  3. Design narrow break-glass exclusions with monitoring and documented controls.
  4. Enable report-only Conditional Access evaluation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

What If evaluates policy applicability under selected inputs. This directly addresses prospective policy applicability for one scenario.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Real sign-in logs record policies and grants evaluated at that event. It is used for diagnosis of actual conditional access denial; this scenario calls for prospective policy applicability for one scenario.

C:

Emergency exclusions prevent tenant-wide lockout while retaining audit oversight. That addresses controlled emergency account resilience, whereas the current case requires prospective policy applicability for one scenario.

D:

Report-only calculates hypothetical results without enforcing denial. It is used for safe initial assessment of policy impact; this scenario calls for prospective policy applicability for one scenario.

Question 157

A vendor should request a time-limited package of groups and apps with automated approvals. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Schedule access reviews for the relevant membership or application.
  2. Publish an entitlement management access package.
  3. Configure appropriate lifecycle workflows in Entra ID Governance.
  4. Manage eligibility and activation with Microsoft Entra PIM.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Entitlement packages bundle resource access and request policies. This directly addresses delegated temporary external onboarding.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Access reviews enable accountable periodic entitlement recertification. Its purpose is periodic membership review; the specified need is delegated temporary external onboarding.

C:

Lifecycle workflows automate identity-related events and task sequences. Its purpose is automated workforce identity transitions; the specified need is delegated temporary external onboarding.

D:

PIM implements controlled time-limited privilege. It would support just-in-time privileged administration, not the stated delegated temporary external onboarding.

Question 158

Identity leaders want specifically to strengthen passwordless adoption and identity controls. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Review the relevant Copilot usage and analytics dashboards.
  2. Review Microsoft Secure Score.
  3. Review Entra Identity Secure Score.
  4. Review Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Identity Secure Score focuses identity-specific hardening measurements. This directly addresses identity-only configuration improvements.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Adoption metrics track product use, not security or compliance framework scores. This helps with Copilot adoption measurement instead of the required identity-only configuration improvements.

B:

Secure Score aggregates security recommendations across Microsoft security controls. The action is relevant to broad cloud security posture recommendations rather than identity-only configuration improvements.

D:

Compliance Manager organizes control assessments and improvement actions. The action is relevant to formal compliance control improvement rather than identity-only configuration improvements.

Question 159

Partners in separately managed tenants need a supported Teams shared-channel collaboration path. Which option is the BEST solution?

  1. Configure cross-tenant access and external collaboration restrictions.
  2. Run an access review and remove the unneeded guest entitlement.
  3. Configure Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration for an invited guest.
  4. Configure B2B direct connect and required cross-tenant policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Direct connect supports certain cross-organization shared-channel experiences. This directly addresses cross-tenant Teams shared-channel participation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Tenant collaboration policies govern permitted partner organizations. It is used for partner domain allow/deny governance; this scenario calls for cross-tenant Teams shared-channel participation.

B:

Review-based cleanup reduces persistence of abandoned partner access. That addresses expired external collaboration rights, whereas the current case requires cross-tenant Teams shared-channel participation.

C:

B2B collaboration grants scoped resource access to external identities. It is used for ordinary external guest collaboration; this scenario calls for cross-tenant Teams shared-channel participation.

Question 160

Managed Windows laptops should let a user unlock a device-bound sign-in key with a PIN or biometric. What should the administrator configure?

  1. Deploy Windows Hello for Business.
  2. Use a Microsoft Entra Temporary Access Pass.
  3. Configure Microsoft Authenticator push or number matching as supported.
  4. Use a supported FIDO2 security key or passkey.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Windows Hello protects asymmetric credentials with a device-local user gesture. This directly addresses device-bound passwordless Windows sign-in.

Incorrect Answers

B:

TAP is designed for controlled bootstrap and account recovery. Its purpose is initial credential enrollment; the specified need is device-bound passwordless Windows sign-in.

C:

Authenticator approvals add an interactive possession-based sign-in step. It would support mobile authenticator challenge, not the stated device-bound passwordless Windows sign-in.

D:

FIDO2 authenticator assertions resist phishing and can be portable. Its purpose is external roaming security-key sign-in; the specified need is device-bound passwordless Windows sign-in.


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