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Microsoft AB-900 Practice Test 18

Question 170

A regulated team needs to enforce a phishing-resistant authentication method for specific logins. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Require an approved authentication strength in Conditional Access.
  2. Apply a policy with risk conditions and the block access grant.
  3. Require a compliant device in Microsoft Entra Conditional Access.
  4. Require an appropriately hybrid-joined device where supported.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Authentication strength constrains eligible methods beyond generic MFA. This directly addresses stronger phishing-resistant sign-in methods.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Risk-based block access prevents a session rather than permitting a second-factor bypass. The action is relevant to risk-triggered denial rather than stronger phishing-resistant sign-in methods.

C:

The grant relies on evaluated management compliance state. This helps with access only from policy-compliant endpoints instead of the required stronger phishing-resistant sign-in methods.

D:

Hybrid-join grant conditions assess the required device trust. The action is relevant to hybrid device-trust gated access rather than stronger phishing-resistant sign-in methods.

Question 171

External workers should request temporary access to a bundle of apps with expiration. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Use assigned group membership with an approval process.
  2. Use supported entitlement management access packages.
  3. Use PIM eligible role activation instead of permanent role assignment.
  4. Configure a Microsoft Entra dynamic group membership rule.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Access packages automate approved and time-limited resource assignment. This directly addresses request-based temporary bundle access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assigned groups allow direct intentional membership control. It is used for curated manually approved group access; this scenario calls for request-based temporary bundle access.

C:

PIM reduces standing role access through controlled activation. It is used for temporary high-privilege access; this scenario calls for request-based temporary bundle access.

D:

Dynamic groups evaluate member properties without manual updates. That addresses attribute-driven group population, whereas the current case requires request-based temporary bundle access.

Question 172

A user has lost their old phone and must replace authenticator registrations after verification. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Issue a policy-approved Temporary Access Pass.
  2. Configure the authentication methods policy for eligible groups.
  3. Reset or re-register permitted user authentication methods.
  4. Review the user's authentication methods and registration details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Removing obsolete method registration enables controlled credential recovery. This directly addresses safe replacement of an authentication device.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Temporary Access Pass supports bootstrapping and recovery of strong authentication. It would support first-time credential bootstrap, not the stated safe replacement of an authentication device.

B:

Method policies control allowed registration and use of methods. Its purpose is scoped passkey eligibility; the specified need is safe replacement of an authentication device.

D:

Method inventory reports which factors are enrolled. Its purpose is current factor enrollment evidence; the specified need is safe replacement of an authentication device.

Question 173

The security team decides a recovered account's risky user state is now resolved. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Revoke the account's sign-in sessions and perform approved recovery.
  2. Investigate and remediate Microsoft Entra risky users.
  3. Review the risky sign-in detection and supporting details.
  4. Apply the supported dismissal or remediation workflow for user risk.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Risk remediation records resolution after recovery action. This directly addresses clearing a verified recovered user-risk case.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Session revocation prevents continued reuse of outstanding authentication sessions. The action is relevant to termination of active compromised sign-ins rather than clearing a verified recovered user-risk case.

B:

User risk evaluates the likelihood of a compromised identity. This helps with response to account-level compromise instead of the required clearing a verified recovered user-risk case.

C:

Sign-in risk reports assess one authentication event. The action is relevant to troubleshooting one anomalous authentication rather than clearing a verified recovered user-risk case.

Question 174

A cloud provisioning connector is failing to create accounts in a destination app. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Inspect Microsoft Entra provisioning logs for the target application.
  2. Review both sign-in and audit log evidence in the investigation.
  3. Query the Microsoft Entra sign-in log for the attempt.
  4. Query Microsoft Entra audit logs for the directory update.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Provisioning logs report account synchronization and processing outcomes. This directly addresses app identity provisioning diagnostics.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Authentication and administrative activity are separate but complementary evidence streams. It is used for end-to-end identity incident timeline; this scenario calls for app identity provisioning diagnostics.

C:

Sign-in records capture authentication results and policy enforcement. That addresses per-attempt sign-in investigation, whereas the current case requires app identity provisioning diagnostics.

D:

Audit events record administrative directory object changes. It is used for attribution of directory updates; this scenario calls for app identity provisioning diagnostics.

Question 175

A user complains about a denied sign-in and the analyst needs the actual enforced rule. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Use the Conditional Access What If tool with the applicable sign-in conditions.
  2. Inspect the sign-in log Conditional Access results.
  3. Design narrow break-glass exclusions with monitoring and documented controls.
  4. Enable report-only Conditional Access evaluation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Real sign-in logs record policies and grants evaluated at that event. This directly addresses diagnosis of actual conditional access denial.

Incorrect Answers

A:

What If evaluates policy applicability under selected inputs. Its purpose is prospective policy applicability for one scenario; the specified need is diagnosis of actual conditional access denial.

C:

Emergency exclusions prevent tenant-wide lockout while retaining audit oversight. Its purpose is controlled emergency account resilience; the specified need is diagnosis of actual conditional access denial.

D:

Report-only calculates hypothetical results without enforcing denial. It would support safe initial assessment of policy impact, not the stated diagnosis of actual conditional access denial.

Question 176

An employee changes departments and the organization must automate identity joiner-mover-leaver steps. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Schedule access reviews for the relevant membership or application.
  2. Publish an entitlement management access package.
  3. Configure appropriate lifecycle workflows in Entra ID Governance.
  4. Manage eligibility and activation with Microsoft Entra PIM.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Lifecycle workflows automate identity-related events and task sequences. This directly addresses automated workforce identity transitions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Access reviews enable accountable periodic entitlement recertification. This helps with periodic membership review instead of the required automated workforce identity transitions.

B:

Entitlement packages bundle resource access and request policies. The action is relevant to delegated temporary external onboarding rather than automated workforce identity transitions.

D:

PIM implements controlled time-limited privilege. The action is relevant to just-in-time privileged administration rather than automated workforce identity transitions.

Question 177

Compliance specialists must map regulatory assessments to evidence and control tasks. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Review the relevant Copilot usage and analytics dashboards.
  2. Review Microsoft Secure Score.
  3. Review Entra Identity Secure Score.
  4. Review Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Compliance Manager organizes control assessments and improvement actions. This directly addresses formal compliance control improvement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Adoption metrics track product use, not security or compliance framework scores. It is used for Copilot adoption measurement; this scenario calls for formal compliance control improvement.

B:

Secure Score aggregates security recommendations across Microsoft security controls. That addresses broad cloud security posture recommendations, whereas the current case requires formal compliance control improvement.

C:

Identity Secure Score focuses identity-specific hardening measurements. It is used for identity-only configuration improvements; this scenario calls for formal compliance control improvement.

Question 178

Security must block guest invitations from unapproved external organizations. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Configure cross-tenant access and external collaboration restrictions.
  2. Run an access review and remove the unneeded guest entitlement.
  3. Configure Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration for an invited guest.
  4. Configure B2B direct connect and required cross-tenant policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Tenant collaboration policies govern permitted partner organizations. This directly addresses partner domain allow/deny governance.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Review-based cleanup reduces persistence of abandoned partner access. Its purpose is expired external collaboration rights; the specified need is partner domain allow/deny governance.

C:

B2B collaboration grants scoped resource access to external identities. It would support ordinary external guest collaboration, not the stated partner domain allow/deny governance.

D:

Direct connect supports certain cross-organization shared-channel experiences. Its purpose is cross-tenant Teams shared-channel participation; the specified need is partner domain allow/deny governance.

Question 179

New staff need a short-lived code to enroll a stronger authentication method. How should the administrator address this situation?

  1. Deploy Windows Hello for Business.
  2. Use a Microsoft Entra Temporary Access Pass.
  3. Configure Microsoft Authenticator push or number matching as supported.
  4. Use a supported FIDO2 security key or passkey.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

TAP is designed for controlled bootstrap and account recovery. This directly addresses initial credential enrollment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Windows Hello protects asymmetric credentials with a device-local user gesture. The action is relevant to device-bound passwordless Windows sign-in rather than initial credential enrollment.

C:

Authenticator approvals add an interactive possession-based sign-in step. The action is relevant to mobile authenticator challenge rather than initial credential enrollment.

D:

FIDO2 authenticator assertions resist phishing and can be portable. This helps with external roaming security-key sign-in instead of the required initial credential enrollment.

Question 180

An API requires an employee's own consent-scoped data and must not operate as a tenant-wide service. Which administration choice BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Configure the application's registration and redirect settings.
  2. Require assignment to the enterprise application service principal.
  3. Use delegated permission scopes for the signed-in user.
  4. Configure approved application permissions for the workload principal.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Delegated scopes act under user identity and permissions. This directly addresses per-user API authorization.

Incorrect Answers

A:

App registration defines the OAuth/OIDC client identity. That addresses initial app integration configuration, whereas the current case requires per-user API authorization.

B:

Enterprise app assignments govern permitted organizational access. It is used for targeted enterprise application usage; this scenario calls for per-user API authorization.

D:

App-only grants permit background operations within authorized scope. It is used for unattended app API execution; this scenario calls for per-user API authorization.


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