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CISM Premium File: 1228 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 15, 2026

CISM Training Course: 388 Video Lectures

CISM PDF Study Guide: 817 Pages

$79.99

CISM Bundle gives you unlimited access to "CISM" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Isaca CISM Practice Test 38

Question 370

A privileged session is performed by a vendor but no record exists of commands executed. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Protect break-glass credentials with controlled access, monitoring and tested recovery procedures.
  2. Enable appropriate privileged session recording and restricted vendor access.
  3. Implement named privileged identities and managed emergency access with audit trails.
  4. Separate incompatible initiation and approval roles with documented exception control.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Verified actions permit investigation and contractual accountability. This directly meets the requirement to capture privileged supplier activity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Emergency access must remain available but not broadly discoverable. That action would secure emergency privileged access; it does not address the case's priority to capture privileged supplier activity.

C:

Attribution and controlled privilege use reduce unaccountable shared access. This would help eliminate routine shared privileged accounts; the scenario instead requires a decision to capture privileged supplier activity.

D:

Segregation limits opportunities for concealed fraudulent activity. That action would separate incompatible transaction permissions; it does not address the case's priority to capture privileged supplier activity.

Question 371

A senior administrator repeatedly skips required high-risk training despite having elevated access. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Evaluate observed behavior and adapt content based on incident and exercise evidence.
  2. Deliver role-specific guidance and acknowledgement before access to regulated systems.
  3. Enforce role-based training prerequisites and accountable escalation.
  4. Provide targeted coaching on safe reporting and handling for the affected role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Privileged access carries heightened responsibilities that must be maintained. This directly meets the requirement to sustain privileged user awareness.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Awareness effectiveness requires outcome evidence rather than completion statistics. That action would improve training based on performance; it does not address the case's priority to sustain privileged user awareness.

B:

Relevant training reduces errors in handling the data actually used. It is primarily relevant when the need is to train contractors on sensitive data obligations, rather than to sustain privileged user awareness.

D:

Behavioral feedback addresses the action that created exposure. That action would improve unsafe phishing response behavior; it does not address the case's priority to sustain privileged user awareness.

Question 372

A vendor security assessment excludes subcontracted cloud environments holding customer data. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Require documented security review for material changes in service architecture or data flows.
  2. Establish service metrics, corrective-action governance and escalation with the provider.
  3. Link supplier offboarding to credential revocation and access verification.
  4. Extend assurance requirements to material service subcontractors and handling paths.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Downstream control gaps may affect the customer's contracted service. This directly meets the requirement to assure subcontracted security service scope.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ongoing supplier risk changes cannot be captured by initial due diligence alone. That action would assess material supplier service changes; it does not address the case's priority to assure subcontracted security service scope.

B:

Contract oversight must use evidence and consequences when duties are unmet. It is primarily relevant when the need is to enforce incident SLA obligations with a supplier, rather than to assure subcontracted security service scope.

C:

Contract termination must close technical access paths to prevent residual exposure. This would help revoke supplier access after termination; the scenario instead requires a decision to assure subcontracted security service scope.

Question 373

An administrator grants permanent privileged access for a two-hour maintenance task. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Use just-in-time privilege with defined approval, scope and expiry.
  2. Enforce business-owner approval and documented role entitlements before granting access.
  3. Integrate authoritative joiner-mover-leaver events with timely access revocation.
  4. Trigger access recertification and remove rights no longer justified by the new role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Temporary elevation limits time-at-risk from privileged credentials. This directly meets the requirement to constrain short-duration administrative privilege.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Authorization must be tied to legitimate function and accountable data ownership. It is primarily relevant when the need is to establish justified application access, rather than to constrain short-duration administrative privilege.

C:

Lifecycle-linked provisioning reduces orphaned identities and lingering access. This would help remove expired contractor access reliably; the scenario instead requires a decision to constrain short-duration administrative privilege.

D:

Role changes require the least-privilege baseline to be reconsidered. That action would prevent privilege accumulation after transfers; it does not address the case's priority to constrain short-duration administrative privilege.

Question 374

An application requires sensitive data access but the owner cannot explain required permissions. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Integrate authoritative joiner-mover-leaver events with timely access revocation.
  2. Enforce business-owner approval and documented role entitlements before granting access.
  3. Use just-in-time privilege with defined approval, scope and expiry.
  4. Trigger access recertification and remove rights no longer justified by the new role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Authorization must be tied to legitimate function and accountable data ownership. This directly meets the requirement to establish justified application access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Lifecycle-linked provisioning reduces orphaned identities and lingering access. That action would remove expired contractor access reliably; it does not address the case's priority to establish justified application access.

C:

Temporary elevation limits time-at-risk from privileged credentials. This would help constrain short-duration administrative privilege; the scenario instead requires a decision to establish justified application access.

D:

Role changes require the least-privilege baseline to be reconsidered. That action would prevent privilege accumulation after transfers; it does not address the case's priority to establish justified application access.

Question 375

A test of security backup recovery only verifies that files exist in storage. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Test representative evidence that the control executed and exceptions were resolved.
  2. Diagnose severity, recurrence and compensating options before a governed response.
  3. Perform controlled restoration and integrity checks against recovery objectives.
  4. Establish approved test procedures, sampling methods and evidence requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Recovery assurance requires successful use of data, not merely backup presence. This directly meets the requirement to prove backup recovery capability.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Control existence does not prove operating effectiveness. That action would validate access review performance; it does not address the case's priority to prove backup recovery capability.

B:

Evidence-based remediation avoids disproportionate reaction to one incomplete result. It is primarily relevant when the need is to adjudicate a security control test failure, rather than to prove backup recovery capability.

D:

Comparable control assurance depends on a shared assessment standard. That action would standardize security control evaluation; it does not address the case's priority to prove backup recovery capability.

Question 376

A release pipeline ignores a new critical dependency alert because its build technically succeeds. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Correct authorization design and add abuse-case tests before deployment.
  2. Conduct post-emergency security review and reconcile documented approvals and tests.
  3. Revoke exposed credentials and implement secret scanning and secure storage practices.
  4. Define severity-based security release gates and documented risk exception authority.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Build success does not establish acceptable residual application risk. This directly meets the requirement to enforce risk-aware software release gates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Preventing broken object authorization requires checks at the business logic boundary. That action would resolve insecure resource authorization; it does not address the case's priority to enforce risk-aware software release gates.

B:

Emergency delivery must not eliminate ongoing assurance. It is primarily relevant when the need is to restore security assurance after emergency code changes, rather than to enforce risk-aware software release gates.

C:

Removing visible text alone does not undo exposure of a valid secret. This would help respond to leaked development credentials; the scenario instead requires a decision to enforce risk-aware software release gates.

Question 377

An organization mandates encryption but has no way to restore business data after a key-loss event. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Define tested key recovery and escrow according to business criticality and governance.
  2. Revoke and replace affected credentials and investigate the trust impact.
  3. Separate key custody and protect keys under a controlled lifecycle.
  4. Require recognized cryptographic mechanisms and independent implementation assurance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Protection must address both secrecy and authorized recoverability. This directly meets the requirement to make encrypted data recoverable.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Compromised private keys invalidate expected identity assurance until replaced. It is primarily relevant when the need is to respond to compromised cryptographic identity, rather than to make encrypted data recoverable.

C:

Encryption loses value when unauthorized parties can access the corresponding keys. This would help protect cryptographic keys independently; the scenario instead requires a decision to make encrypted data recoverable.

D:

Proprietary unreviewed algorithms create uncertainty about protection strength. That action would validate cryptographic mechanism suitability; it does not address the case's priority to make encrypted data recoverable.

Question 378

A managed security vendor misses incident response service levels but internal managers do not escalate. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Evaluate subcontracting impact and supplier compliance before authorizing the new arrangement.
  2. Apply service performance review and contractual remediation or exit decisions.
  3. Require relevant scope, dates, limitations and remediation evidence for the contracted service.
  4. Enforce ongoing assurance, escalation and corrective action against contractual expectations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Ongoing service measures must lead to accountable corrective actions. This directly meets the requirement to enforce managed security service accountability.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Downstream provider changes may alter confidentiality and resilience risk. That action would govern changes in fourth-party services; it does not address the case's priority to enforce managed security service accountability.

C:

Out-of-scope testing cannot assure the environment the customer relies on. This would help validate supplier test relevance; the scenario instead requires a decision to enforce managed security service accountability.

D:

Supplier oversight is continuous rather than limited to initial qualification. That action would respond to recurring supplier assurance lapses; it does not address the case's priority to enforce managed security service accountability.

Question 379

An encryption key is scheduled for destruction while business records still require lawful access. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Verify deployed certificate chain and endpoint configuration across production paths.
  2. Coordinate revocation propagation, service rekeying and validation of dependent applications.
  3. Validate retention, recovery and legal dependencies before key disposal.
  4. Apply approved key rotation and cryptoperiod policy based on risk and use.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Destroying a key can irreversibly deny access to records with valid retention needs. This directly meets the requirement to prevent premature key destruction.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Issuance alone does not guarantee correct trust presentation. That action would validate deployed certificate trust; it does not address the case's priority to prevent premature key destruction.

B:

Key incident response must address every system still trusting the compromised material. It is primarily relevant when the need is to complete cryptographic compromise remediation, rather than to prevent premature key destruction.

D:

Key aging and exposure require managed lifecycle treatment. That action would maintain appropriate key rotation; it does not address the case's priority to prevent premature key destruction.

Question 380

A vendor agreement expires but its administrator account retains privileged network access. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Require documented security review for material changes in service architecture or data flows.
  2. Extend assurance requirements to material service subcontractors and handling paths.
  3. Establish service metrics, corrective-action governance and escalation with the provider.
  4. Link supplier offboarding to credential revocation and access verification.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Contract termination must close technical access paths to prevent residual exposure. This directly meets the requirement to revoke supplier access after termination.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ongoing supplier risk changes cannot be captured by initial due diligence alone. That action would assess material supplier service changes; it does not address the case's priority to revoke supplier access after termination.

B:

Downstream control gaps may affect the customer's contracted service. It is primarily relevant when the need is to assure subcontracted security service scope, rather than to revoke supplier access after termination.

C:

Contract oversight must use evidence and consequences when duties are unmet. This would help enforce incident SLA obligations with a supplier; the scenario instead requires a decision to revoke supplier access after termination.


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