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CISM Premium File: 1228 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 15, 2026

CISM Training Course: 388 Video Lectures

CISM PDF Study Guide: 817 Pages

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CISM Bundle gives you unlimited access to "CISM" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Isaca CISM Practice Test 36

Question 350

A major application upgrade is deployed without rechecking previously granted API permissions. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Introduce secure development requirements, training and pre-release validation.
  2. Reevaluate authorization and integration trust after material design changes.
  3. Include risk-appropriate manual testing and design review for relevant attack paths.
  4. Maintain a dependency inventory and assign vulnerability remediation responsibility.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Security assumptions may no longer apply after a new release or data-flow change. This directly meets the requirement to validate security after application upgrades.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Process controls reduce repeated introduction of preventable software flaws. That action would prevent recurring application vulnerabilities; it does not address the case's priority to validate security after application upgrades.

C:

Automated testing has blind spots and does not establish absence of weaknesses. This would help supplement security scanners with targeted review; the scenario instead requires a decision to validate security after application upgrades.

D:

Software composition tracking is necessary for timely replacement of unsafe components. That action would manage unsupported open-source components; it does not address the case's priority to validate security after application upgrades.

Question 351

A simulated phishing campaign publicly shames individual employees after each failure. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Use controlled simulated landing pages with safe instrumentation and consent governance.
  2. Provide accessible reporting channels and include usability in exercise design.
  3. Redesign exercises for confidential coaching, learning and management-level trend reporting.
  4. Normalize difficulty, target population and reporting criteria before comparison.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Punitive approaches discourage reporting and can damage security culture. This directly meets the requirement to use nonpunitive phishing exercise feedback.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Exercises should measure susceptibility without creating new secret exposure. That action would protect credentials during phishing simulations; it does not address the case's priority to use nonpunitive phishing exercise feedback.

B:

A secure process must be usable by the people expected to follow it. It is primarily relevant when the need is to make social engineering exercises accessible, rather than to use nonpunitive phishing exercise feedback.

D:

Measurement consistency is necessary to infer genuine behavioral improvement. That action would make phishing exercise trends comparable; it does not address the case's priority to use nonpunitive phishing exercise feedback.

Question 352

A control fails once during testing and management proposes disabling it immediately. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Test representative evidence that the control executed and exceptions were resolved.
  2. Establish approved test procedures, sampling methods and evidence requirements.
  3. Perform controlled restoration and integrity checks against recovery objectives.
  4. Diagnose severity, recurrence and compensating options before a governed response.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Evidence-based remediation avoids disproportionate reaction to one incomplete result. This directly meets the requirement to adjudicate a security control test failure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Control existence does not prove operating effectiveness. That action would validate access review performance; it does not address the case's priority to adjudicate a security control test failure.

B:

Comparable control assurance depends on a shared assessment standard. It is primarily relevant when the need is to standardize security control evaluation, rather than to adjudicate a security control test failure.

C:

Recovery assurance requires successful use of data, not merely backup presence. This would help prove backup recovery capability; the scenario instead requires a decision to adjudicate a security control test failure.

Question 353

One operator can initiate a financial payment and approve the same transaction. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Separate incompatible initiation and approval roles with documented exception control.
  2. Enable appropriate privileged session recording and restricted vendor access.
  3. Implement named privileged identities and managed emergency access with audit trails.
  4. Protect break-glass credentials with controlled access, monitoring and tested recovery procedures.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Segregation limits opportunities for concealed fraudulent activity. This directly meets the requirement to separate incompatible transaction permissions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Verified actions permit investigation and contractual accountability. It is primarily relevant when the need is to capture privileged supplier activity, rather than to separate incompatible transaction permissions.

C:

Attribution and controlled privilege use reduce unaccountable shared access. This would help eliminate routine shared privileged accounts; the scenario instead requires a decision to separate incompatible transaction permissions.

D:

Emergency access must remain available but not broadly discoverable. That action would secure emergency privileged access; it does not address the case's priority to separate incompatible transaction permissions.

Question 354

An application library is withdrawn upstream but continues in production without an owner. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Introduce secure development requirements, training and pre-release validation.
  2. Maintain a dependency inventory and assign vulnerability remediation responsibility.
  3. Include risk-appropriate manual testing and design review for relevant attack paths.
  4. Reevaluate authorization and integration trust after material design changes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Software composition tracking is necessary for timely replacement of unsafe components. This directly meets the requirement to manage unsupported open-source components.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Process controls reduce repeated introduction of preventable software flaws. That action would prevent recurring application vulnerabilities; it does not address the case's priority to manage unsupported open-source components.

C:

Automated testing has blind spots and does not establish absence of weaknesses. This would help supplement security scanners with targeted review; the scenario instead requires a decision to manage unsupported open-source components.

D:

Security assumptions may no longer apply after a new release or data-flow change. That action would validate security after application upgrades; it does not address the case's priority to manage unsupported open-source components.

Question 355

Recovery capacity is sized for one failed server, not a widespread ransomware event. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Assess backup geography and contractual processing restrictions during service design.
  2. Segregate backup administration and protect immutable or isolated recovery copies.
  3. Reassess recovery scenarios and capacity for correlated multi-service disruption.
  4. Test recovery data consistency and address the source of corruption before assurance signoff.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Resilience planning must reflect plausible simultaneous failures. This directly meets the requirement to scale recovery for enterprise-wide compromise.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Secondary data copies can create the same legal obligations as active records. That action would govern backup data residency; it does not address the case's priority to scale recovery for enterprise-wide compromise.

B:

Separate recovery trust reduces ransomware ability to destroy restoration points. It is primarily relevant when the need is to defend backups against production compromise, rather than to scale recovery for enterprise-wide compromise.

D:

Backup job success is not equivalent to usable restored information. That action would verify backup integrity in practice; it does not address the case's priority to scale recovery for enterprise-wide compromise.

Question 356

An emergency communications channel depends on the network most likely to fail in a regional outage. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Test end-to-end service recovery across supporting security dependencies.
  2. Include security monitoring and evidence continuity in recovery architecture and tests.
  3. Measure actual recovery times and data loss against approved service objectives.
  4. Establish independently reachable, tested alternative communications.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Crisis coordination requires channels resilient to the same initiating event. This directly meets the requirement to preserve communications during infrastructure outage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A partial system restoration may not recover the business process. That action would verify dependencies in continuity recovery tests; it does not address the case's priority to preserve communications during infrastructure outage.

B:

Operations cannot safely resume with blind spots or lost investigative context. It is primarily relevant when the need is to maintain security assurance during recovery, rather than to preserve communications during infrastructure outage.

C:

Exercise completion alone cannot prove business continuity adequacy. This would help demonstrate recovery objective attainment; the scenario instead requires a decision to preserve communications during infrastructure outage.

Question 357

A user transfers departments but retains incompatible historical permissions. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Trigger access recertification and remove rights no longer justified by the new role.
  2. Use just-in-time privilege with defined approval, scope and expiry.
  3. Enforce business-owner approval and documented role entitlements before granting access.
  4. Integrate authoritative joiner-mover-leaver events with timely access revocation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Role changes require the least-privilege baseline to be reconsidered. This directly meets the requirement to prevent privilege accumulation after transfers.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Temporary elevation limits time-at-risk from privileged credentials. It is primarily relevant when the need is to constrain short-duration administrative privilege, rather than to prevent privilege accumulation after transfers.

C:

Authorization must be tied to legitimate function and accountable data ownership. This would help establish justified application access; the scenario instead requires a decision to prevent privilege accumulation after transfers.

D:

Lifecycle-linked provisioning reduces orphaned identities and lingering access. That action would remove expired contractor access reliably; it does not address the case's priority to prevent privilege accumulation after transfers.

Question 358

Operations reports mean time to close alerts while unresolved critical incidents remain high. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Report full service coverage and exceptions against approved operational obligations.
  2. Add severity-weighted containment and outcome measures to the service dashboard.
  3. Measure meaningful findings, hypothesis validation and detection improvements.
  4. Include data quality and actionable detection usefulness in service acceptance metrics.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Fast closure can mask poor incident resolution quality. This directly meets the requirement to measure actual security response performance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Selective measurement understates response exposure. That action would prevent misleading security service SLA reporting; it does not address the case's priority to measure actual security response performance.

C:

Activity volume does not indicate whether hunting reduces risk. This would help assess value of threat hunting outcomes; the scenario instead requires a decision to measure actual security response performance.

D:

Availability alone cannot demonstrate that the security signal is usable. That action would measure monitoring service data quality; it does not address the case's priority to measure actual security response performance.

Question 359

An outsourced SOC frequently misses critical notification windows but contract owners never review performance. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Extend assurance requirements to material service subcontractors and handling paths.
  2. Require documented security review for material changes in service architecture or data flows.
  3. Establish service metrics, corrective-action governance and escalation with the provider.
  4. Link supplier offboarding to credential revocation and access verification.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Contract oversight must use evidence and consequences when duties are unmet. This directly meets the requirement to enforce incident SLA obligations with a supplier.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Downstream control gaps may affect the customer's contracted service. That action would assure subcontracted security service scope; it does not address the case's priority to enforce incident SLA obligations with a supplier.

B:

Ongoing supplier risk changes cannot be captured by initial due diligence alone. It is primarily relevant when the need is to assess material supplier service changes, rather than to enforce incident SLA obligations with a supplier.

D:

Contract termination must close technical access paths to prevent residual exposure. That action would revoke supplier access after termination; it does not address the case's priority to enforce incident SLA obligations with a supplier.

Question 360

A security program selects a control but has no defined evidence of success. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Compare tested detection, response integration and total lifecycle cost against requirements.
  2. Select authentication abuse controls based on the specific threat scenario and performance requirements.
  3. Assess business impact and adjust the design before enforcing the control.
  4. Define objective acceptance criteria, coverage targets and operating tests before procurement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Measurable criteria permit verification that chosen controls actually address risk. This directly meets the requirement to establish testable control selection criteria.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Control selection should account for operational effectiveness, not only prevention claims. That action would evaluate competing protective technology options; it does not address the case's priority to establish testable control selection criteria.

B:

Encryption of stored backups does not address automated online authentication abuse. It is primarily relevant when the need is to choose a control matched to credential attacks, rather than to establish testable control selection criteria.

C:

Control choice should reduce net enterprise exposure, including availability harm. This would help avoid disproportionate security control disruption; the scenario instead requires a decision to establish testable control selection criteria.


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