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Last Update: Sep 15, 2026

CISM Training Course: 388 Video Lectures

CISM PDF Study Guide: 817 Pages

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Isaca CISM Practice Test 35

Question 340

A fourth-party processor takes over critical activity without formal due diligence. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Enforce ongoing assurance, escalation and corrective action against contractual expectations.
  2. Apply service performance review and contractual remediation or exit decisions.
  3. Require relevant scope, dates, limitations and remediation evidence for the contracted service.
  4. Evaluate subcontracting impact and supplier compliance before authorizing the new arrangement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Downstream provider changes may alter confidentiality and resilience risk. This directly meets the requirement to govern changes in fourth-party services.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Supplier oversight is continuous rather than limited to initial qualification. That action would respond to recurring supplier assurance lapses; it does not address the case's priority to govern changes in fourth-party services.

B:

Ongoing service measures must lead to accountable corrective actions. It is primarily relevant when the need is to enforce managed security service accountability, rather than to govern changes in fourth-party services.

C:

Out-of-scope testing cannot assure the environment the customer relies on. This would help validate supplier test relevance; the scenario instead requires a decision to govern changes in fourth-party services.

Question 341

A supplier uses an undisclosed custom cipher to protect regulated customer records. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Require recognized cryptographic mechanisms and independent implementation assurance.
  2. Revoke and replace affected credentials and investigate the trust impact.
  3. Define tested key recovery and escrow according to business criticality and governance.
  4. Separate key custody and protect keys under a controlled lifecycle.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Proprietary unreviewed algorithms create uncertainty about protection strength. This directly meets the requirement to validate cryptographic mechanism suitability.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Compromised private keys invalidate expected identity assurance until replaced. It is primarily relevant when the need is to respond to compromised cryptographic identity, rather than to validate cryptographic mechanism suitability.

C:

Protection must address both secrecy and authorized recoverability. This would help make encrypted data recoverable; the scenario instead requires a decision to validate cryptographic mechanism suitability.

D:

Encryption loses value when unauthorized parties can access the corresponding keys. That action would protect cryptographic keys independently; it does not address the case's priority to validate cryptographic mechanism suitability.

Question 342

A design review finds that a new endpoint authorizes access without verifying resource ownership. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Conduct post-emergency security review and reconcile documented approvals and tests.
  2. Correct authorization design and add abuse-case tests before deployment.
  3. Revoke exposed credentials and implement secret scanning and secure storage practices.
  4. Define severity-based security release gates and documented risk exception authority.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Preventing broken object authorization requires checks at the business logic boundary. This directly meets the requirement to resolve insecure resource authorization.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Emergency delivery must not eliminate ongoing assurance. That action would restore security assurance after emergency code changes; it does not address the case's priority to resolve insecure resource authorization.

C:

Removing visible text alone does not undo exposure of a valid secret. This would help respond to leaked development credentials; the scenario instead requires a decision to resolve insecure resource authorization.

D:

Build success does not establish acceptable residual application risk. That action would enforce risk-aware software release gates; it does not address the case's priority to resolve insecure resource authorization.

Question 343

An organization uses archival storage as a substitute for access-control enforcement. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Extend disposal controls and verification to downstream processors and replicas.
  2. Implement approved hold precedence and lifecycle exception handling.
  3. Apply authorization and monitoring to archived sensitive records.
  4. Reassess privacy purpose, legal basis and authorized processing controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Long-term storage does not remove confidentiality obligations. This directly meets the requirement to protect archived classified information.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Information lifecycle obligations follow copies outside the primary repository. That action would eliminate residual third-party data copies; it does not address the case's priority to protect archived classified information.

B:

Legitimate preservation obligations override routine deletion for affected records. It is primarily relevant when the need is to retain legally held data appropriately, rather than to protect archived classified information.

D:

Secondary processing may create obligations beyond original collection. That action would control new uses of retained personal data; it does not address the case's priority to protect archived classified information.

Question 344

Security logs and evidence are lost during disaster recovery because backups omit monitoring configuration. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Measure actual recovery times and data loss against approved service objectives.
  2. Establish independently reachable, tested alternative communications.
  3. Test end-to-end service recovery across supporting security dependencies.
  4. Include security monitoring and evidence continuity in recovery architecture and tests.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Operations cannot safely resume with blind spots or lost investigative context. This directly meets the requirement to maintain security assurance during recovery.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Exercise completion alone cannot prove business continuity adequacy. That action would demonstrate recovery objective attainment; it does not address the case's priority to maintain security assurance during recovery.

B:

Crisis coordination requires channels resilient to the same initiating event. It is primarily relevant when the need is to preserve communications during infrastructure outage, rather than to maintain security assurance during recovery.

C:

A partial system restoration may not recover the business process. This would help verify dependencies in continuity recovery tests; the scenario instead requires a decision to maintain security assurance during recovery.

Question 345

An organization wants to test credential-reporting behavior without collecting actual staff passwords. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Use controlled simulated landing pages with safe instrumentation and consent governance.
  2. Provide accessible reporting channels and include usability in exercise design.
  3. Redesign exercises for confidential coaching, learning and management-level trend reporting.
  4. Normalize difficulty, target population and reporting criteria before comparison.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Exercises should measure susceptibility without creating new secret exposure. This directly meets the requirement to protect credentials during phishing simulations.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A secure process must be usable by the people expected to follow it. It is primarily relevant when the need is to make social engineering exercises accessible, rather than to protect credentials during phishing simulations.

C:

Punitive approaches discourage reporting and can damage security culture. This would help use nonpunitive phishing exercise feedback; the scenario instead requires a decision to protect credentials during phishing simulations.

D:

Measurement consistency is necessary to infer genuine behavioral improvement. That action would make phishing exercise trends comparable; it does not address the case's priority to protect credentials during phishing simulations.

Question 346

Emergency changes regularly bypass security evaluation and are never reviewed afterward. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Continuously monitor approved baselines and reconcile unauthorized deviations.
  2. Define expedited approval and retrospective risk review for emergency modifications.
  3. Require authorized change records and post-change verification for security controls.
  4. Evaluate service dependencies and rollback readiness before approval.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Emergency flexibility needs compensating oversight to prevent persistent uncontrolled risk. This directly meets the requirement to govern emergency security changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Configuration monitoring detects divergence before control assumptions become inaccurate. That action would identify unauthorized baseline drift; it does not address the case's priority to govern emergency security changes.

C:

Traceable decisions and tests connect operational modifications to accountability. This would help make security configuration changes auditable; the scenario instead requires a decision to govern emergency security changes.

D:

Change decisions must account for control benefit and operational consequences. That action would protect service continuity during security change; it does not address the case's priority to govern emergency security changes.

Question 347

A business needs to delete data after a retention period but some records are subject to legal hold. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Reassess privacy purpose, legal basis and authorized processing controls.
  2. Extend disposal controls and verification to downstream processors and replicas.
  3. Implement approved hold precedence and lifecycle exception handling.
  4. Apply authorization and monitoring to archived sensitive records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Legitimate preservation obligations override routine deletion for affected records. This directly meets the requirement to retain legally held data appropriately.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Secondary processing may create obligations beyond original collection. That action would control new uses of retained personal data; it does not address the case's priority to retain legally held data appropriately.

B:

Information lifecycle obligations follow copies outside the primary repository. It is primarily relevant when the need is to eliminate residual third-party data copies, rather than to retain legally held data appropriately.

D:

Long-term storage does not remove confidentiality obligations. That action would protect archived classified information; it does not address the case's priority to retain legally held data appropriately.

Question 348

A laptop has antimalware software installed but threat events are absent and the sensor is unhealthy. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Use a narrowly justified and tested exception while preserving broad detection.
  2. Apply assessed alternate protection, restricted access and an accountable modernization plan.
  3. Standardize baselines and monitor drift with approved exception paths.
  4. Verify actual agent health, policy coverage and event reporting before claiming protection.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Software inventory alone does not prove ongoing defensive operation. This directly meets the requirement to validate endpoint control effectiveness.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Blanket disabling removes protection unrelated to the verified false positive. That action would handle endpoint false positives proportionately; it does not address the case's priority to validate endpoint control effectiveness.

B:

Unsupported platforms require explicit compensating risk treatment. It is primarily relevant when the need is to govern unsupported endpoint protection gaps, rather than to validate endpoint control effectiveness.

C:

Consistent configuration reduces preventable weaknesses and supports assurance. This would help reduce endpoint hardening inconsistency; the scenario instead requires a decision to validate endpoint control effectiveness.

Question 349

A new monitoring capability has no incident escalation when it detects a possible data breach. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Define severity, ownership, communications and response paths before going live.
  2. Revise role assignments and runbooks based on exercise findings.
  3. Establish evidence logging and retention requirements linked to response and legal needs.
  4. Integrate business continuity and safety approval into the containment playbook.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Detection without response responsibilities leaves risk unmanaged. This directly meets the requirement to connect security detection with incident escalation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Rehearsal improvements must change operating processes, not only reports. It is primarily relevant when the need is to strengthen incident coordination handoffs, rather than to connect security detection with incident escalation.

C:

Forensic reconstruction depends on planned evidence preservation. This would help design incident-ready control evidence; the scenario instead requires a decision to connect security detection with incident escalation.

D:

Response actions require business-impact awareness and delegated risk decisions. That action would align containment with business safety needs; it does not address the case's priority to connect security detection with incident escalation.

Question 350

A major application upgrade is deployed without rechecking previously granted API permissions. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Introduce secure development requirements, training and pre-release validation.
  2. Reevaluate authorization and integration trust after material design changes.
  3. Include risk-appropriate manual testing and design review for relevant attack paths.
  4. Maintain a dependency inventory and assign vulnerability remediation responsibility.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Security assumptions may no longer apply after a new release or data-flow change. This directly meets the requirement to validate security after application upgrades.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Process controls reduce repeated introduction of preventable software flaws. That action would prevent recurring application vulnerabilities; it does not address the case's priority to validate security after application upgrades.

C:

Automated testing has blind spots and does not establish absence of weaknesses. This would help supplement security scanners with targeted review; the scenario instead requires a decision to validate security after application upgrades.

D:

Software composition tracking is necessary for timely replacement of unsafe components. That action would manage unsupported open-source components; it does not address the case's priority to validate security after application upgrades.


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