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CISM Premium File: 1228 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 15, 2026

CISM Training Course: 388 Video Lectures

CISM PDF Study Guide: 817 Pages

$79.99

CISM Bundle gives you unlimited access to "CISM" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Isaca CISM Practice Test 34

Question 330

A security team installs cameras but nobody is assigned to respond to restricted-area alarms. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Assess environmental single points of failure and improve power resilience.
  2. Define monitoring responsibility and tested physical incident escalation.
  3. Perform periodic access recertification and timely physical credential revocation.
  4. Establish approved visitor identity checks, escorts and retained access records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Detection hardware alone does not stop or respond to unauthorized physical activity. This directly meets the requirement to connect physical detection with response.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Compute redundancy cannot overcome a shared supporting infrastructure outage. That action would reduce physical infrastructure common-mode failure; it does not address the case's priority to connect physical detection with response.

C:

Entry controls lose effectiveness when access rights remain unneeded. This would help sustain physical access authorization; the scenario instead requires a decision to connect physical detection with response.

D:

Physical visitor controls limit untracked access to critical assets. That action would govern visitor access to secure facilities; it does not address the case's priority to connect physical detection with response.

Question 331

A deletion automation removes active copies but leaves unmanaged exports in third-party systems. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Apply authorization and monitoring to archived sensitive records.
  2. Implement approved hold precedence and lifecycle exception handling.
  3. Extend disposal controls and verification to downstream processors and replicas.
  4. Reassess privacy purpose, legal basis and authorized processing controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Information lifecycle obligations follow copies outside the primary repository. This directly meets the requirement to eliminate residual third-party data copies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Long-term storage does not remove confidentiality obligations. That action would protect archived classified information; it does not address the case's priority to eliminate residual third-party data copies.

B:

Legitimate preservation obligations override routine deletion for affected records. It is primarily relevant when the need is to retain legally held data appropriately, rather than to eliminate residual third-party data copies.

D:

Secondary processing may create obligations beyond original collection. That action would control new uses of retained personal data; it does not address the case's priority to eliminate residual third-party data copies.

Question 332

A business owner claims an access review works because a procedure is documented. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Perform controlled restoration and integrity checks against recovery objectives.
  2. Diagnose severity, recurrence and compensating options before a governed response.
  3. Establish approved test procedures, sampling methods and evidence requirements.
  4. Test representative evidence that the control executed and exceptions were resolved.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Control existence does not prove operating effectiveness. This directly meets the requirement to validate access review performance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recovery assurance requires successful use of data, not merely backup presence. That action would prove backup recovery capability; it does not address the case's priority to validate access review performance.

B:

Evidence-based remediation avoids disproportionate reaction to one incomplete result. It is primarily relevant when the need is to adjudicate a security control test failure, rather than to validate access review performance.

C:

Comparable control assurance depends on a shared assessment standard. This would help standardize security control evaluation; the scenario instead requires a decision to validate access review performance.

Question 333

A SaaS provider handles platform patching but the customer assumes the provider approves application users. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Document customer access governance and supplier platform duties separately.
  2. Specify and test customer-required security logging under the service responsibility model.
  3. Reassess control allocations for the new service model and adjust procedures.
  4. Correct customer-managed workload configuration and test exposure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Shared responsibility varies by service; user authorization often remains customer-controlled. This directly meets the requirement to clarify SaaS identity control responsibilities.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Vendor defaults do not necessarily satisfy enterprise evidence requirements. It is primarily relevant when the need is to ensure customer cloud monitoring coverage, rather than to clarify SaaS identity control responsibilities.

C:

Duties differ between infrastructure, platform and software service offerings. This would help refresh cloud controls after service model changes; the scenario instead requires a decision to clarify SaaS identity control responsibilities.

D:

Provider facilities control does not secure misconfigured customer data access. That action would address customer-retained cloud configuration risk; it does not address the case's priority to clarify SaaS identity control responsibilities.

Question 334

A simulated phishing email reaches staff with disabilities but the reporting tool is inaccessible. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Redesign exercises for confidential coaching, learning and management-level trend reporting.
  2. Provide accessible reporting channels and include usability in exercise design.
  3. Normalize difficulty, target population and reporting criteria before comparison.
  4. Use controlled simulated landing pages with safe instrumentation and consent governance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A secure process must be usable by the people expected to follow it. This directly meets the requirement to make social engineering exercises accessible.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Punitive approaches discourage reporting and can damage security culture. That action would use nonpunitive phishing exercise feedback; it does not address the case's priority to make social engineering exercises accessible.

C:

Measurement consistency is necessary to infer genuine behavioral improvement. This would help make phishing exercise trends comparable; the scenario instead requires a decision to make social engineering exercises accessible.

D:

Exercises should measure susceptibility without creating new secret exposure. That action would protect credentials during phishing simulations; it does not address the case's priority to make social engineering exercises accessible.

Question 335

A vendor claims penetration testing is complete but refuses to specify which service was tested. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Apply service performance review and contractual remediation or exit decisions.
  2. Evaluate subcontracting impact and supplier compliance before authorizing the new arrangement.
  3. Require relevant scope, dates, limitations and remediation evidence for the contracted service.
  4. Enforce ongoing assurance, escalation and corrective action against contractual expectations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Out-of-scope testing cannot assure the environment the customer relies on. This directly meets the requirement to validate supplier test relevance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ongoing service measures must lead to accountable corrective actions. That action would enforce managed security service accountability; it does not address the case's priority to validate supplier test relevance.

B:

Downstream provider changes may alter confidentiality and resilience risk. It is primarily relevant when the need is to govern changes in fourth-party services, rather than to validate supplier test relevance.

D:

Supplier oversight is continuous rather than limited to initial qualification. That action would respond to recurring supplier assurance lapses; it does not address the case's priority to validate supplier test relevance.

Question 336

An alerting platform is present but no process assigns investigations to responders. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Enforce synchronized time sources and validate timestamp accuracy across monitored assets.
  2. Remove unnecessary secret collection and protect any previously exposed logs.
  3. Apply risk-based retention, access control and secure disposal to logging.
  4. Define triage ownership, escalation and response service levels for high-priority alerts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Detection value depends on timely analysis and action. This directly meets the requirement to make alert monitoring operationally actionable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Consistent chronology is essential for correlating events and preserving evidence. That action would improve cross-system event correlation; it does not address the case's priority to make alert monitoring operationally actionable.

B:

Logging design must reduce secondary exposure from sensitive payloads. It is primarily relevant when the need is to prevent secrets from entering security logs, rather than to make alert monitoring operationally actionable.

C:

Audit trails are sensitive assets governed by business and legal requirements. This would help manage log security throughout retention; the scenario instead requires a decision to make alert monitoring operationally actionable.

Question 337

An endpoint team proposes disabling all threat detections to suppress one trusted installer. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Use a narrowly justified and tested exception while preserving broad detection.
  2. Standardize baselines and monitor drift with approved exception paths.
  3. Verify actual agent health, policy coverage and event reporting before claiming protection.
  4. Apply assessed alternate protection, restricted access and an accountable modernization plan.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Blanket disabling removes protection unrelated to the verified false positive. This directly meets the requirement to handle endpoint false positives proportionately.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Consistent configuration reduces preventable weaknesses and supports assurance. It is primarily relevant when the need is to reduce endpoint hardening inconsistency, rather than to handle endpoint false positives proportionately.

C:

Software inventory alone does not prove ongoing defensive operation. This would help validate endpoint control effectiveness; the scenario instead requires a decision to handle endpoint false positives proportionately.

D:

Unsupported platforms require explicit compensating risk treatment. That action would govern unsupported endpoint protection gaps; it does not address the case's priority to handle endpoint false positives proportionately.

Question 338

Emergency administrator credentials are stored in a shared document accessible to all staff. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Enable appropriate privileged session recording and restricted vendor access.
  2. Protect break-glass credentials with controlled access, monitoring and tested recovery procedures.
  3. Implement named privileged identities and managed emergency access with audit trails.
  4. Separate incompatible initiation and approval roles with documented exception control.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Emergency access must remain available but not broadly discoverable. This directly meets the requirement to secure emergency privileged access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Verified actions permit investigation and contractual accountability. That action would capture privileged supplier activity; it does not address the case's priority to secure emergency privileged access.

C:

Attribution and controlled privilege use reduce unaccountable shared access. This would help eliminate routine shared privileged accounts; the scenario instead requires a decision to secure emergency privileged access.

D:

Segregation limits opportunities for concealed fraudulent activity. That action would separate incompatible transaction permissions; it does not address the case's priority to secure emergency privileged access.

Question 339

A critical web service needs protection from credential stuffing but the proposed control only encrypts backups. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Compare tested detection, response integration and total lifecycle cost against requirements.
  2. Define objective acceptance criteria, coverage targets and operating tests before procurement.
  3. Select authentication abuse controls based on the specific threat scenario and performance requirements.
  4. Assess business impact and adjust the design before enforcing the control.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Encryption of stored backups does not address automated online authentication abuse. This directly meets the requirement to choose a control matched to credential attacks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Control selection should account for operational effectiveness, not only prevention claims. That action would evaluate competing protective technology options; it does not address the case's priority to choose a control matched to credential attacks.

B:

Measurable criteria permit verification that chosen controls actually address risk. It is primarily relevant when the need is to establish testable control selection criteria, rather than to choose a control matched to credential attacks.

D:

Control choice should reduce net enterprise exposure, including availability harm. That action would avoid disproportionate security control disruption; it does not address the case's priority to choose a control matched to credential attacks.

Question 340

A fourth-party processor takes over critical activity without formal due diligence. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Enforce ongoing assurance, escalation and corrective action against contractual expectations.
  2. Apply service performance review and contractual remediation or exit decisions.
  3. Require relevant scope, dates, limitations and remediation evidence for the contracted service.
  4. Evaluate subcontracting impact and supplier compliance before authorizing the new arrangement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Downstream provider changes may alter confidentiality and resilience risk. This directly meets the requirement to govern changes in fourth-party services.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Supplier oversight is continuous rather than limited to initial qualification. That action would respond to recurring supplier assurance lapses; it does not address the case's priority to govern changes in fourth-party services.

B:

Ongoing service measures must lead to accountable corrective actions. It is primarily relevant when the need is to enforce managed security service accountability, rather than to govern changes in fourth-party services.

C:

Out-of-scope testing cannot assure the environment the customer relies on. This would help validate supplier test relevance; the scenario instead requires a decision to govern changes in fourth-party services.


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