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CISM Premium File: 1228 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 15, 2026

CISM Training Course: 388 Video Lectures

CISM PDF Study Guide: 817 Pages

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CISM Bundle gives you unlimited access to "CISM" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Isaca CISM Practice Test 33

Question 320

An organization cannot hire enough internal cloud incident experts immediately. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Use role-based competency assessment to allocate development resources.
  2. Develop documented procedures, cross-training and succession for critical security skills.
  3. Define required roles, coverage model and ongoing staffing before approving deployment.
  4. Assess managed service or training options with retained accountability and clear service requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Sourcing choices should address capability gaps without transferring business responsibility. This directly meets the requirement to fill scarce security capability gaps.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Targeted capability improvement addresses the skills required for each accountable role. That action would allocate staff development by operational need; it does not address the case's priority to fill scarce security capability gaps.

B:

Single-person operational dependency threatens control continuity. It is primarily relevant when the need is to reduce key-person skill concentration, rather than to fill scarce security capability gaps.

C:

Operating capability depends on responders and processes, not tools alone. This would help resource security operations sustainably; the scenario instead requires a decision to fill scarce security capability gaps.

Question 321

A key security architecture dependency is missing from the project schedule. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Establish a roadmap dependency register with owners and gating milestones.
  2. Map each initiative to risk scenarios, accountable beneficiaries and expected outcome metrics.
  3. Rank initiatives by risk, dependencies and delivery capacity in a phased portfolio.
  4. Consolidate the program portfolio against common coverage, integration and cost objectives.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Shared prerequisites must be ready before downstream controls can achieve their purpose. This directly meets the requirement to manage program-level security dependencies.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Traceability allows managers to stop projects whose benefits are unsupported. It is primarily relevant when the need is to show portfolio contribution to risk treatment, rather than to manage program-level security dependencies.

C:

Realistic sequencing delivers material outcomes rather than partially completing everything. This would help match security portfolio to available capacity; the scenario instead requires a decision to manage program-level security dependencies.

D:

Coordinating related investments avoids duplicate capability and uncontrolled expense. That action would rationalize overlapping security projects; it does not address the case's priority to manage program-level security dependencies.

Question 322

A monthly program report has pages of graphs but no assigned decision points. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Report monitoring coverage change separately from actual threat and loss trends.
  2. Include material deviations, accountable owners, options and required executive actions.
  3. Standardize the population, severity criteria and reporting windows across divisions.
  4. Choose actionable leading KRIs with owners and tolerance-based triggers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Governance reporting is useful when it drives informed decisions. This directly meets the requirement to make security performance reports decision-ready.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Increased visibility can raise detection totals without indicating more attacks. That action would interpret security monitoring metric shifts; it does not address the case's priority to make security performance reports decision-ready.

C:

Comparable definitions enable valid prioritization at enterprise level. This would help harmonize remediation reporting metrics; the scenario instead requires a decision to make security performance reports decision-ready.

D:

KRIs flag deteriorating conditions and route decisions before losses occur. That action would design actionable program risk indicators; it does not address the case's priority to make security performance reports decision-ready.

Question 323

The organization selects a framework solely because competitors use it. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Identify the gap and define an accountable control or approved treatment.
  2. Harmonize common control requirements into one approved enterprise control.
  3. Evaluate suitability against industry, risk profile, maturity and enterprise objectives.
  4. Create a risk-to-control crosswalk showing objectives, applicable standards and evidence owners.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Framework selection should support business needs, not fashion or peer pressure. This directly meets the requirement to choose an appropriate security framework.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unmapped obligations need explicit decisions rather than being hidden inside a broad framework. That action would close framework-to-obligation gaps; it does not address the case's priority to choose an appropriate security framework.

B:

Shared controls reduce duplicate work while producing evidence for multiple obligations. It is primarily relevant when the need is to rationalize overlapping framework requirements, rather than to choose an appropriate security framework.

D:

Control mapping avoids checklist compliance divorced from exposure. That action would align framework controls with prioritized risks; it does not address the case's priority to choose an appropriate security framework.

Question 324

A release process bypasses security review for emergency fixes without subsequent examination. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Define remediation ownership and severity-based closure timelines in the development program.
  2. Embed risk assessment and security acceptance criteria throughout the development lifecycle.
  3. Require dependency inventory, vulnerability tracking and governed update practices.
  4. Define time-bound emergency change approval and independent post-deployment review.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Emergency flexibility must retain auditability and residual-risk oversight. This directly meets the requirement to govern emergency application releases.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assigned correction targets turn findings into risk treatment. That action would establish accountable application flaw remediation; it does not address the case's priority to govern emergency application releases.

B:

Early integration finds costly design weaknesses before deployment. It is primarily relevant when the need is to shift security into development planning, rather than to govern emergency application releases.

C:

Software component visibility is necessary to manage inherited flaws. This would help maintain software supply-chain awareness; the scenario instead requires a decision to govern emergency application releases.

Question 325

Supplier service changes are accepted by procurement without security-impact assessment. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Require documented security review for material changes in service architecture or data flows.
  2. Extend assurance requirements to material service subcontractors and handling paths.
  3. Establish service metrics, corrective-action governance and escalation with the provider.
  4. Link supplier offboarding to credential revocation and access verification.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Ongoing supplier risk changes cannot be captured by initial due diligence alone. This directly meets the requirement to assess material supplier service changes.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Downstream control gaps may affect the customer's contracted service. It is primarily relevant when the need is to assure subcontracted security service scope, rather than to assess material supplier service changes.

C:

Contract oversight must use evidence and consequences when duties are unmet. This would help enforce incident SLA obligations with a supplier; the scenario instead requires a decision to assess material supplier service changes.

D:

Contract termination must close technical access paths to prevent residual exposure. That action would revoke supplier access after termination; it does not address the case's priority to assess material supplier service changes.

Question 326

A privileged access certification excludes service accounts because they have no human manager. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Provide business context, entitlement purpose and risk signals to approvers.
  2. Assign service-account owners and include privileged machine identities in review scope.
  3. Establish timely termination-triggered revocation independent of certification cycles.
  4. Track entitlement removal verification and closure evidence after review decisions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Nonhuman identities can carry critical privileges requiring accountability. This directly meets the requirement to review privileged service account access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Review quality depends on sufficient evidence to judge continuing need. That action would make access recertification informed; it does not address the case's priority to review privileged service account access.

C:

Periodic reviews cannot replace near-real-time leaver controls. This would help revoke terminated-user access promptly; the scenario instead requires a decision to review privileged service account access.

D:

Certification findings only reduce risk when remediation actions complete. That action would close access review revocation findings; it does not address the case's priority to review privileged service account access.

Question 327

A firewall rule grants unrestricted administrative access from every network because debugging was difficult. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Define boundaries, connection conditions and monitoring at the intercompany interface.
  2. Validate permitted flows and rollback plans with business owners before full enforcement.
  3. Narrow source identities, destinations, protocols and monitoring to the needed administration path.
  4. Implement network segmentation and allow only business-required flows between zones.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Least-privilege network rules reduce unnecessary attack paths. This directly meets the requirement to restrict overbroad management network access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Third-party connectivity creates attack paths that need explicit authorization. That action would govern partner network interconnection; it does not address the case's priority to restrict overbroad management network access.

B:

Poorly tested segmentation can interrupt essential services. It is primarily relevant when the need is to safely implement network zone restrictions, rather than to restrict overbroad management network access.

D:

Restricted communication paths reduce lateral movement from lower-trust assets. That action would separate guest and financial network trust; it does not address the case's priority to restrict overbroad management network access.

Question 328

An awareness team compares two campaigns with radically different difficulty as equal scores. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Provide accessible reporting channels and include usability in exercise design.
  2. Redesign exercises for confidential coaching, learning and management-level trend reporting.
  3. Use controlled simulated landing pages with safe instrumentation and consent governance.
  4. Normalize difficulty, target population and reporting criteria before comparison.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Measurement consistency is necessary to infer genuine behavioral improvement. This directly meets the requirement to make phishing exercise trends comparable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A secure process must be usable by the people expected to follow it. That action would make social engineering exercises accessible; it does not address the case's priority to make phishing exercise trends comparable.

B:

Punitive approaches discourage reporting and can damage security culture. It is primarily relevant when the need is to use nonpunitive phishing exercise feedback, rather than to make phishing exercise trends comparable.

C:

Exercises should measure susceptibility without creating new secret exposure. This would help protect credentials during phishing simulations; the scenario instead requires a decision to make phishing exercise trends comparable.

Question 329

A production security baseline drifts after unmanaged configuration edits. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Continuously monitor approved baselines and reconcile unauthorized deviations.
  2. Evaluate service dependencies and rollback readiness before approval.
  3. Require authorized change records and post-change verification for security controls.
  4. Define expedited approval and retrospective risk review for emergency modifications.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Configuration monitoring detects divergence before control assumptions become inaccurate. This directly meets the requirement to identify unauthorized baseline drift.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Change decisions must account for control benefit and operational consequences. It is primarily relevant when the need is to protect service continuity during security change, rather than to identify unauthorized baseline drift.

C:

Traceable decisions and tests connect operational modifications to accountability. This would help make security configuration changes auditable; the scenario instead requires a decision to identify unauthorized baseline drift.

D:

Emergency flexibility needs compensating oversight to prevent persistent uncontrolled risk. That action would govern emergency security changes; it does not address the case's priority to identify unauthorized baseline drift.

Question 330

A security team installs cameras but nobody is assigned to respond to restricted-area alarms. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Assess environmental single points of failure and improve power resilience.
  2. Define monitoring responsibility and tested physical incident escalation.
  3. Perform periodic access recertification and timely physical credential revocation.
  4. Establish approved visitor identity checks, escorts and retained access records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Detection hardware alone does not stop or respond to unauthorized physical activity. This directly meets the requirement to connect physical detection with response.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Compute redundancy cannot overcome a shared supporting infrastructure outage. That action would reduce physical infrastructure common-mode failure; it does not address the case's priority to connect physical detection with response.

C:

Entry controls lose effectiveness when access rights remain unneeded. This would help sustain physical access authorization; the scenario instead requires a decision to connect physical detection with response.

D:

Physical visitor controls limit untracked access to critical assets. That action would govern visitor access to secure facilities; it does not address the case's priority to connect physical detection with response.


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