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CISM Premium File: 1228 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 15, 2026

CISM Training Course: 388 Video Lectures

CISM PDF Study Guide: 817 Pages

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Isaca CISM Practice Test 37

Question 360

A security program selects a control but has no defined evidence of success. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Compare tested detection, response integration and total lifecycle cost against requirements.
  2. Select authentication abuse controls based on the specific threat scenario and performance requirements.
  3. Assess business impact and adjust the design before enforcing the control.
  4. Define objective acceptance criteria, coverage targets and operating tests before procurement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Measurable criteria permit verification that chosen controls actually address risk. This directly meets the requirement to establish testable control selection criteria.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Control selection should account for operational effectiveness, not only prevention claims. That action would evaluate competing protective technology options; it does not address the case's priority to establish testable control selection criteria.

B:

Encryption of stored backups does not address automated online authentication abuse. It is primarily relevant when the need is to choose a control matched to credential attacks, rather than to establish testable control selection criteria.

C:

Control choice should reduce net enterprise exposure, including availability harm. This would help avoid disproportionate security control disruption; the scenario instead requires a decision to establish testable control selection criteria.

Question 361

A network rule would block a high-volume attack but also interrupt an emergency clinical system. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Assess business impact and adjust the design before enforcing the control.
  2. Compare tested detection, response integration and total lifecycle cost against requirements.
  3. Select authentication abuse controls based on the specific threat scenario and performance requirements.
  4. Define objective acceptance criteria, coverage targets and operating tests before procurement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Control choice should reduce net enterprise exposure, including availability harm. This directly meets the requirement to avoid disproportionate security control disruption.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Control selection should account for operational effectiveness, not only prevention claims. It is primarily relevant when the need is to evaluate competing protective technology options, rather than to avoid disproportionate security control disruption.

C:

Encryption of stored backups does not address automated online authentication abuse. This would help choose a control matched to credential attacks; the scenario instead requires a decision to avoid disproportionate security control disruption.

D:

Measurable criteria permit verification that chosen controls actually address risk. That action would establish testable control selection criteria; it does not address the case's priority to avoid disproportionate security control disruption.

Question 362

A code scanner finds injection issues after release but developers lack a secure coding standard. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Reevaluate authorization and integration trust after material design changes.
  2. Introduce secure development requirements, training and pre-release validation.
  3. Maintain a dependency inventory and assign vulnerability remediation responsibility.
  4. Include risk-appropriate manual testing and design review for relevant attack paths.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Process controls reduce repeated introduction of preventable software flaws. This directly meets the requirement to prevent recurring application vulnerabilities.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security assumptions may no longer apply after a new release or data-flow change. That action would validate security after application upgrades; it does not address the case's priority to prevent recurring application vulnerabilities.

C:

Software composition tracking is necessary for timely replacement of unsafe components. This would help manage unsupported open-source components; the scenario instead requires a decision to prevent recurring application vulnerabilities.

D:

Automated testing has blind spots and does not establish absence of weaknesses. That action would supplement security scanners with targeted review; it does not address the case's priority to prevent recurring application vulnerabilities.

Question 363

A security service meets its SLA by excluding incidents filed outside business hours. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Add severity-weighted containment and outcome measures to the service dashboard.
  2. Measure meaningful findings, hypothesis validation and detection improvements.
  3. Report full service coverage and exceptions against approved operational obligations.
  4. Include data quality and actionable detection usefulness in service acceptance metrics.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Selective measurement understates response exposure. This directly meets the requirement to prevent misleading security service SLA reporting.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Fast closure can mask poor incident resolution quality. That action would measure actual security response performance; it does not address the case's priority to prevent misleading security service SLA reporting.

B:

Activity volume does not indicate whether hunting reduces risk. It is primarily relevant when the need is to assess value of threat hunting outcomes, rather than to prevent misleading security service SLA reporting.

D:

Availability alone cannot demonstrate that the security signal is usable. That action would measure monitoring service data quality; it does not address the case's priority to prevent misleading security service SLA reporting.

Question 364

A sensitive service uses encryption but the same key has been active without review for many years. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Validate retention, recovery and legal dependencies before key disposal.
  2. Verify deployed certificate chain and endpoint configuration across production paths.
  3. Coordinate revocation propagation, service rekeying and validation of dependent applications.
  4. Apply approved key rotation and cryptoperiod policy based on risk and use.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Key aging and exposure require managed lifecycle treatment. This directly meets the requirement to maintain appropriate key rotation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Destroying a key can irreversibly deny access to records with valid retention needs. That action would prevent premature key destruction; it does not address the case's priority to maintain appropriate key rotation.

B:

Issuance alone does not guarantee correct trust presentation. It is primarily relevant when the need is to validate deployed certificate trust, rather than to maintain appropriate key rotation.

C:

Key incident response must address every system still trusting the compromised material. This would help complete cryptographic compromise remediation; the scenario instead requires a decision to maintain appropriate key rotation.

Question 365

A monitoring vendor reports excellent availability but sends malformed events that cannot be correlated. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Include data quality and actionable detection usefulness in service acceptance metrics.
  2. Add severity-weighted containment and outcome measures to the service dashboard.
  3. Measure meaningful findings, hypothesis validation and detection improvements.
  4. Report full service coverage and exceptions against approved operational obligations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Availability alone cannot demonstrate that the security signal is usable. This directly meets the requirement to measure monitoring service data quality.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Fast closure can mask poor incident resolution quality. It is primarily relevant when the need is to measure actual security response performance, rather than to measure monitoring service data quality.

C:

Activity volume does not indicate whether hunting reduces risk. This would help assess value of threat hunting outcomes; the scenario instead requires a decision to measure monitoring service data quality.

D:

Selective measurement understates response exposure. That action would prevent misleading security service SLA reporting; it does not address the case's priority to measure monitoring service data quality.

Question 366

Developers commit sensitive API tokens into a source repository and scanning flags them. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Conduct post-emergency security review and reconcile documented approvals and tests.
  2. Revoke exposed credentials and implement secret scanning and secure storage practices.
  3. Define severity-based security release gates and documented risk exception authority.
  4. Correct authorization design and add abuse-case tests before deployment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Removing visible text alone does not undo exposure of a valid secret. This directly meets the requirement to respond to leaked development credentials.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Emergency delivery must not eliminate ongoing assurance. That action would restore security assurance after emergency code changes; it does not address the case's priority to respond to leaked development credentials.

C:

Build success does not establish acceptable residual application risk. This would help enforce risk-aware software release gates; the scenario instead requires a decision to respond to leaked development credentials.

D:

Preventing broken object authorization requires checks at the business logic boundary. That action would resolve insecure resource authorization; it does not address the case's priority to respond to leaked development credentials.

Question 367

A critical service's recovery exercise restores servers but not dependent identity or network access. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Include security monitoring and evidence continuity in recovery architecture and tests.
  2. Measure actual recovery times and data loss against approved service objectives.
  3. Test end-to-end service recovery across supporting security dependencies.
  4. Establish independently reachable, tested alternative communications.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A partial system restoration may not recover the business process. This directly meets the requirement to verify dependencies in continuity recovery tests.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Operations cannot safely resume with blind spots or lost investigative context. That action would maintain security assurance during recovery; it does not address the case's priority to verify dependencies in continuity recovery tests.

B:

Exercise completion alone cannot prove business continuity adequacy. It is primarily relevant when the need is to demonstrate recovery objective attainment, rather than to verify dependencies in continuity recovery tests.

D:

Crisis coordination requires channels resilient to the same initiating event. That action would preserve communications during infrastructure outage; it does not address the case's priority to verify dependencies in continuity recovery tests.

Question 368

A change proposal protects data but is likely to interrupt a time-critical production workflow. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Require authorized change records and post-change verification for security controls.
  2. Continuously monitor approved baselines and reconcile unauthorized deviations.
  3. Define expedited approval and retrospective risk review for emergency modifications.
  4. Evaluate service dependencies and rollback readiness before approval.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Change decisions must account for control benefit and operational consequences. This directly meets the requirement to protect service continuity during security change.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Traceable decisions and tests connect operational modifications to accountability. That action would make security configuration changes auditable; it does not address the case's priority to protect service continuity during security change.

B:

Configuration monitoring detects divergence before control assumptions become inaccurate. It is primarily relevant when the need is to identify unauthorized baseline drift, rather than to protect service continuity during security change.

C:

Emergency flexibility needs compensating oversight to prevent persistent uncontrolled risk. This would help govern emergency security changes; the scenario instead requires a decision to protect service continuity during security change.

Question 369

Auditors and control owners use different criteria to call the same control Effective. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Establish approved test procedures, sampling methods and evidence requirements.
  2. Test representative evidence that the control executed and exceptions were resolved.
  3. Perform controlled restoration and integrity checks against recovery objectives.
  4. Diagnose severity, recurrence and compensating options before a governed response.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Comparable control assurance depends on a shared assessment standard. This directly meets the requirement to standardize security control evaluation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Control existence does not prove operating effectiveness. It is primarily relevant when the need is to validate access review performance, rather than to standardize security control evaluation.

C:

Recovery assurance requires successful use of data, not merely backup presence. This would help prove backup recovery capability; the scenario instead requires a decision to standardize security control evaluation.

D:

Evidence-based remediation avoids disproportionate reaction to one incomplete result. That action would adjudicate a security control test failure; it does not address the case's priority to standardize security control evaluation.

Question 370

A privileged session is performed by a vendor but no record exists of commands executed. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Protect break-glass credentials with controlled access, monitoring and tested recovery procedures.
  2. Enable appropriate privileged session recording and restricted vendor access.
  3. Implement named privileged identities and managed emergency access with audit trails.
  4. Separate incompatible initiation and approval roles with documented exception control.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Verified actions permit investigation and contractual accountability. This directly meets the requirement to capture privileged supplier activity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Emergency access must remain available but not broadly discoverable. That action would secure emergency privileged access; it does not address the case's priority to capture privileged supplier activity.

C:

Attribution and controlled privilege use reduce unaccountable shared access. This would help eliminate routine shared privileged accounts; the scenario instead requires a decision to capture privileged supplier activity.

D:

Segregation limits opportunities for concealed fraudulent activity. That action would separate incompatible transaction permissions; it does not address the case's priority to capture privileged supplier activity.


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