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CISM Premium File: 1228 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 15, 2026

CISM Training Course: 388 Video Lectures

CISM PDF Study Guide: 817 Pages

$79.99

CISM Bundle gives you unlimited access to "CISM" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Isaca CISM Practice Test 39

Question 380

A vendor agreement expires but its administrator account retains privileged network access. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Require documented security review for material changes in service architecture or data flows.
  2. Extend assurance requirements to material service subcontractors and handling paths.
  3. Establish service metrics, corrective-action governance and escalation with the provider.
  4. Link supplier offboarding to credential revocation and access verification.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Contract termination must close technical access paths to prevent residual exposure. This directly meets the requirement to revoke supplier access after termination.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ongoing supplier risk changes cannot be captured by initial due diligence alone. That action would assess material supplier service changes; it does not address the case's priority to revoke supplier access after termination.

B:

Downstream control gaps may affect the customer's contracted service. It is primarily relevant when the need is to assure subcontracted security service scope, rather than to revoke supplier access after termination.

C:

Contract oversight must use evidence and consequences when duties are unmet. This would help enforce incident SLA obligations with a supplier; the scenario instead requires a decision to revoke supplier access after termination.

Question 381

A service encrypts backups but stores decryption keys on the same unprotected share. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Separate key custody and protect keys under a controlled lifecycle.
  2. Revoke and replace affected credentials and investigate the trust impact.
  3. Require recognized cryptographic mechanisms and independent implementation assurance.
  4. Define tested key recovery and escrow according to business criticality and governance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Encryption loses value when unauthorized parties can access the corresponding keys. This directly meets the requirement to protect cryptographic keys independently.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Compromised private keys invalidate expected identity assurance until replaced. It is primarily relevant when the need is to respond to compromised cryptographic identity, rather than to protect cryptographic keys independently.

C:

Proprietary unreviewed algorithms create uncertainty about protection strength. This would help validate cryptographic mechanism suitability; the scenario instead requires a decision to protect cryptographic keys independently.

D:

Protection must address both secrecy and authorized recoverability. That action would make encrypted data recoverable; it does not address the case's priority to protect cryptographic keys independently.

Question 382

A compromised visitor device can directly connect to production finance database ports. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Define boundaries, connection conditions and monitoring at the intercompany interface.
  2. Implement network segmentation and allow only business-required flows between zones.
  3. Validate permitted flows and rollback plans with business owners before full enforcement.
  4. Narrow source identities, destinations, protocols and monitoring to the needed administration path.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Restricted communication paths reduce lateral movement from lower-trust assets. This directly meets the requirement to separate guest and financial network trust.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Third-party connectivity creates attack paths that need explicit authorization. That action would govern partner network interconnection; it does not address the case's priority to separate guest and financial network trust.

C:

Poorly tested segmentation can interrupt essential services. This would help safely implement network zone restrictions; the scenario instead requires a decision to separate guest and financial network trust.

D:

Least-privilege network rules reduce unnecessary attack paths. That action would restrict overbroad management network access; it does not address the case's priority to separate guest and financial network trust.

Question 383

A high-value data center has redundant servers but only one electrical supply. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Perform periodic access recertification and timely physical credential revocation.
  2. Establish approved visitor identity checks, escorts and retained access records.
  3. Assess environmental single points of failure and improve power resilience.
  4. Define monitoring responsibility and tested physical incident escalation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Compute redundancy cannot overcome a shared supporting infrastructure outage. This directly meets the requirement to reduce physical infrastructure common-mode failure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Entry controls lose effectiveness when access rights remain unneeded. That action would sustain physical access authorization; it does not address the case's priority to reduce physical infrastructure common-mode failure.

B:

Physical visitor controls limit untracked access to critical assets. It is primarily relevant when the need is to govern visitor access to secure facilities, rather than to reduce physical infrastructure common-mode failure.

D:

Detection hardware alone does not stop or respond to unauthorized physical activity. That action would connect physical detection with response; it does not address the case's priority to reduce physical infrastructure common-mode failure.

Question 384

Training attendance reaches 100 percent but unsafe behavior remains unchanged. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Provide targeted coaching on safe reporting and handling for the affected role.
  2. Enforce role-based training prerequisites and accountable escalation.
  3. Deliver role-specific guidance and acknowledgement before access to regulated systems.
  4. Evaluate observed behavior and adapt content based on incident and exercise evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Awareness effectiveness requires outcome evidence rather than completion statistics. This directly meets the requirement to improve training based on performance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Behavioral feedback addresses the action that created exposure. That action would improve unsafe phishing response behavior; it does not address the case's priority to improve training based on performance.

B:

Privileged access carries heightened responsibilities that must be maintained. It is primarily relevant when the need is to sustain privileged user awareness, rather than to improve training based on performance.

C:

Relevant training reduces errors in handling the data actually used. This would help train contractors on sensitive data obligations; the scenario instead requires a decision to improve training based on performance.

Question 385

A team applies emergency updates without testing critical dependencies or retaining rollback capability. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Use risk-based expedited change testing and documented recovery contingencies.
  2. Verify applied fixes and exposure reduction on affected asset populations.
  3. Incorporate dependency control and secure build validation into the delivery pipeline.
  4. Escalate urgent risk treatment with safe mitigation and expedited validated remediation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Urgent remediation must still consider availability and safe fallback. This directly meets the requirement to safely implement emergency security patches.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Deployment inputs do not demonstrate remediation coverage. It is primarily relevant when the need is to measure patch remediation outcomes, rather than to safely implement emergency security patches.

C:

Fixing systemic supply-chain causes prevents repeated introduction of the same flaw. This would help prevent recurrence of vulnerable software dependencies; the scenario instead requires a decision to safely implement emergency security patches.

D:

Active exploitability raises priority beyond routine scheduling. That action would address urgent vulnerability exposure; it does not address the case's priority to safely implement emergency security patches.

Question 386

A cloud workload moves between service models but its responsibility matrix is unchanged. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Document customer access governance and supplier platform duties separately.
  2. Reassess control allocations for the new service model and adjust procedures.
  3. Specify and test customer-required security logging under the service responsibility model.
  4. Correct customer-managed workload configuration and test exposure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Duties differ between infrastructure, platform and software service offerings. This directly meets the requirement to refresh cloud controls after service model changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared responsibility varies by service; user authorization often remains customer-controlled. That action would clarify SaaS identity control responsibilities; it does not address the case's priority to refresh cloud controls after service model changes.

C:

Vendor defaults do not necessarily satisfy enterprise evidence requirements. This would help ensure customer cloud monitoring coverage; the scenario instead requires a decision to refresh cloud controls after service model changes.

D:

Provider facilities control does not secure misconfigured customer data access. That action would address customer-retained cloud configuration risk; it does not address the case's priority to refresh cloud controls after service model changes.

Question 387

A test team claims no vulnerabilities because automated scans found none. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Reevaluate authorization and integration trust after material design changes.
  2. Introduce secure development requirements, training and pre-release validation.
  3. Include risk-appropriate manual testing and design review for relevant attack paths.
  4. Maintain a dependency inventory and assign vulnerability remediation responsibility.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Automated testing has blind spots and does not establish absence of weaknesses. This directly meets the requirement to supplement security scanners with targeted review.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security assumptions may no longer apply after a new release or data-flow change. That action would validate security after application upgrades; it does not address the case's priority to supplement security scanners with targeted review.

B:

Process controls reduce repeated introduction of preventable software flaws. It is primarily relevant when the need is to prevent recurring application vulnerabilities, rather than to supplement security scanners with targeted review.

D:

Software composition tracking is necessary for timely replacement of unsafe components. That action would manage unsupported open-source components; it does not address the case's priority to supplement security scanners with targeted review.

Question 388

A quarterly access recertification sends hundreds of accounts to managers without showing job role or activity. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Assign service-account owners and include privileged machine identities in review scope.
  2. Track entitlement removal verification and closure evidence after review decisions.
  3. Establish timely termination-triggered revocation independent of certification cycles.
  4. Provide business context, entitlement purpose and risk signals to approvers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Review quality depends on sufficient evidence to judge continuing need. This directly meets the requirement to make access recertification informed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Nonhuman identities can carry critical privileges requiring accountability. That action would review privileged service account access; it does not address the case's priority to make access recertification informed.

B:

Certification findings only reduce risk when remediation actions complete. It is primarily relevant when the need is to close access review revocation findings, rather than to make access recertification informed.

C:

Periodic reviews cannot replace near-real-time leaver controls. This would help revoke terminated-user access promptly; the scenario instead requires a decision to make access recertification informed.

Question 389

A critical firewall change is made without recording the approver or reason. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Require authorized change records and post-change verification for security controls.
  2. Define expedited approval and retrospective risk review for emergency modifications.
  3. Continuously monitor approved baselines and reconcile unauthorized deviations.
  4. Evaluate service dependencies and rollback readiness before approval.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Traceable decisions and tests connect operational modifications to accountability. This directly meets the requirement to make security configuration changes auditable.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Emergency flexibility needs compensating oversight to prevent persistent uncontrolled risk. It is primarily relevant when the need is to govern emergency security changes, rather than to make security configuration changes auditable.

C:

Configuration monitoring detects divergence before control assumptions become inaccurate. This would help identify unauthorized baseline drift; the scenario instead requires a decision to make security configuration changes auditable.

D:

Change decisions must account for control benefit and operational consequences. That action would protect service continuity during security change; it does not address the case's priority to make security configuration changes auditable.

Question 390

A cloud supplier passes onboarding review but repeatedly misses quarterly security evidence submissions. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Evaluate subcontracting impact and supplier compliance before authorizing the new arrangement.
  2. Enforce ongoing assurance, escalation and corrective action against contractual expectations.
  3. Apply service performance review and contractual remediation or exit decisions.
  4. Require relevant scope, dates, limitations and remediation evidence for the contracted service.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Supplier oversight is continuous rather than limited to initial qualification. This directly meets the requirement to respond to recurring supplier assurance lapses.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Downstream provider changes may alter confidentiality and resilience risk. That action would govern changes in fourth-party services; it does not address the case's priority to respond to recurring supplier assurance lapses.

C:

Ongoing service measures must lead to accountable corrective actions. This would help enforce managed security service accountability; the scenario instead requires a decision to respond to recurring supplier assurance lapses.

D:

Out-of-scope testing cannot assure the environment the customer relies on. That action would validate supplier test relevance; it does not address the case's priority to respond to recurring supplier assurance lapses.


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