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CISM Premium File: 1228 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 15, 2026

CISM Training Course: 388 Video Lectures

CISM PDF Study Guide: 817 Pages

$79.99

CISM Bundle gives you unlimited access to "CISM" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Isaca CISM Practice Test 40

Question 390

A cloud supplier passes onboarding review but repeatedly misses quarterly security evidence submissions. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Evaluate subcontracting impact and supplier compliance before authorizing the new arrangement.
  2. Enforce ongoing assurance, escalation and corrective action against contractual expectations.
  3. Apply service performance review and contractual remediation or exit decisions.
  4. Require relevant scope, dates, limitations and remediation evidence for the contracted service.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Supplier oversight is continuous rather than limited to initial qualification. This directly meets the requirement to respond to recurring supplier assurance lapses.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Downstream provider changes may alter confidentiality and resilience risk. That action would govern changes in fourth-party services; it does not address the case's priority to respond to recurring supplier assurance lapses.

C:

Ongoing service measures must lead to accountable corrective actions. This would help enforce managed security service accountability; the scenario instead requires a decision to respond to recurring supplier assurance lapses.

D:

Out-of-scope testing cannot assure the environment the customer relies on. That action would validate supplier test relevance; it does not address the case's priority to respond to recurring supplier assurance lapses.

Question 391

An auditor identifies a critical logging control gap but management closes the finding after signing a purchase order. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Perform root-cause analysis and assign sustainable corrective process improvements.
  2. Make the accountable process owner responsible for remediation with security support.
  3. Require evidence of deployed, operating controls before approving finding closure.
  4. Escalate overdue exposure and establish verified interim controls with documented acceptance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Procurement progress does not equal remediation of security exposure. This directly meets the requirement to close audit findings with operating proof.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Systemic remediation prevents repeated failure of the same control objective. That action would eliminate recurring control weaknesses; it does not address the case's priority to close audit findings with operating proof.

B:

Business-control ownership should remain with the function controlling the process. It is primarily relevant when the need is to assign remediation to the right process owner, rather than to close audit findings with operating proof.

D:

Open high-risk findings need transparent risk treatment while permanent fixes are delayed. That action would govern overdue audit remediation; it does not address the case's priority to close audit findings with operating proof.

Question 392

Visitors are allowed into a sensitive equipment area without escorts or logging. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Assess environmental single points of failure and improve power resilience.
  2. Define monitoring responsibility and tested physical incident escalation.
  3. Perform periodic access recertification and timely physical credential revocation.
  4. Establish approved visitor identity checks, escorts and retained access records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Physical visitor controls limit untracked access to critical assets. This directly meets the requirement to govern visitor access to secure facilities.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Compute redundancy cannot overcome a shared supporting infrastructure outage. That action would reduce physical infrastructure common-mode failure; it does not address the case's priority to govern visitor access to secure facilities.

B:

Detection hardware alone does not stop or respond to unauthorized physical activity. It is primarily relevant when the need is to connect physical detection with response, rather than to govern visitor access to secure facilities.

C:

Entry controls lose effectiveness when access rights remain unneeded. This would help sustain physical access authorization; the scenario instead requires a decision to govern visitor access to secure facilities.

Question 393

A patching report claims success based on packages downloaded, not devices actually corrected. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Verify applied fixes and exposure reduction on affected asset populations.
  2. Escalate urgent risk treatment with safe mitigation and expedited validated remediation.
  3. Incorporate dependency control and secure build validation into the delivery pipeline.
  4. Use risk-based expedited change testing and documented recovery contingencies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Deployment inputs do not demonstrate remediation coverage. This directly meets the requirement to measure patch remediation outcomes.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Active exploitability raises priority beyond routine scheduling. It is primarily relevant when the need is to address urgent vulnerability exposure, rather than to measure patch remediation outcomes.

C:

Fixing systemic supply-chain causes prevents repeated introduction of the same flaw. This would help prevent recurrence of vulnerable software dependencies; the scenario instead requires a decision to measure patch remediation outcomes.

D:

Urgent remediation must still consider availability and safe fallback. That action would safely implement emergency security patches; it does not address the case's priority to measure patch remediation outcomes.

Question 394

A security log system collects events but clocks differ enough to prevent credible incident reconstruction. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Define triage ownership, escalation and response service levels for high-priority alerts.
  2. Enforce synchronized time sources and validate timestamp accuracy across monitored assets.
  3. Apply risk-based retention, access control and secure disposal to logging.
  4. Remove unnecessary secret collection and protect any previously exposed logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Consistent chronology is essential for correlating events and preserving evidence. This directly meets the requirement to improve cross-system event correlation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Detection value depends on timely analysis and action. That action would make alert monitoring operationally actionable; it does not address the case's priority to improve cross-system event correlation.

C:

Audit trails are sensitive assets governed by business and legal requirements. This would help manage log security throughout retention; the scenario instead requires a decision to improve cross-system event correlation.

D:

Logging design must reduce secondary exposure from sensitive payloads. That action would prevent secrets from entering security logs; it does not address the case's priority to improve cross-system event correlation.

Question 395

A marketing dataset is reused for a new sensitive profiling purpose without notice or approval. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Implement approved hold precedence and lifecycle exception handling.
  2. Extend disposal controls and verification to downstream processors and replicas.
  3. Reassess privacy purpose, legal basis and authorized processing controls.
  4. Apply authorization and monitoring to archived sensitive records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Secondary processing may create obligations beyond original collection. This directly meets the requirement to control new uses of retained personal data.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Legitimate preservation obligations override routine deletion for affected records. That action would retain legally held data appropriately; it does not address the case's priority to control new uses of retained personal data.

B:

Information lifecycle obligations follow copies outside the primary repository. It is primarily relevant when the need is to eliminate residual third-party data copies, rather than to control new uses of retained personal data.

D:

Long-term storage does not remove confidentiality obligations. That action would protect archived classified information; it does not address the case's priority to control new uses of retained personal data.

Question 396

Repeated phishing simulations show the finance team forwarding suspicious messages to colleagues. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Deliver role-specific guidance and acknowledgement before access to regulated systems.
  2. Evaluate observed behavior and adapt content based on incident and exercise evidence.
  3. Enforce role-based training prerequisites and accountable escalation.
  4. Provide targeted coaching on safe reporting and handling for the affected role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Behavioral feedback addresses the action that created exposure. This directly meets the requirement to improve unsafe phishing response behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Relevant training reduces errors in handling the data actually used. That action would train contractors on sensitive data obligations; it does not address the case's priority to improve unsafe phishing response behavior.

B:

Awareness effectiveness requires outcome evidence rather than completion statistics. It is primarily relevant when the need is to improve training based on performance, rather than to improve unsafe phishing response behavior.

C:

Privileged access carries heightened responsibilities that must be maintained. This would help sustain privileged user awareness; the scenario instead requires a decision to improve unsafe phishing response behavior.

Question 397

Logs include credentials in clear text due to an application debug setting. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Remove unnecessary secret collection and protect any previously exposed logs.
  2. Apply risk-based retention, access control and secure disposal to logging.
  3. Define triage ownership, escalation and response service levels for high-priority alerts.
  4. Enforce synchronized time sources and validate timestamp accuracy across monitored assets.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Logging design must reduce secondary exposure from sensitive payloads. This directly meets the requirement to prevent secrets from entering security logs.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Audit trails are sensitive assets governed by business and legal requirements. It is primarily relevant when the need is to manage log security throughout retention, rather than to prevent secrets from entering security logs.

C:

Detection value depends on timely analysis and action. This would help make alert monitoring operationally actionable; the scenario instead requires a decision to prevent secrets from entering security logs.

D:

Consistent chronology is essential for correlating events and preserving evidence. That action would improve cross-system event correlation; it does not address the case's priority to prevent secrets from entering security logs.

Question 398

A sensitive server room uses badge entry but no review of who has access. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Assess environmental single points of failure and improve power resilience.
  2. Perform periodic access recertification and timely physical credential revocation.
  3. Establish approved visitor identity checks, escorts and retained access records.
  4. Define monitoring responsibility and tested physical incident escalation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Entry controls lose effectiveness when access rights remain unneeded. This directly meets the requirement to sustain physical access authorization.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Compute redundancy cannot overcome a shared supporting infrastructure outage. That action would reduce physical infrastructure common-mode failure; it does not address the case's priority to sustain physical access authorization.

C:

Physical visitor controls limit untracked access to critical assets. This would help govern visitor access to secure facilities; the scenario instead requires a decision to sustain physical access authorization.

D:

Detection hardware alone does not stop or respond to unauthorized physical activity. That action would connect physical detection with response; it does not address the case's priority to sustain physical access authorization.

Question 399

A vulnerability persists because obsolete components are repeatedly included in new releases. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Escalate urgent risk treatment with safe mitigation and expedited validated remediation.
  2. Verify applied fixes and exposure reduction on affected asset populations.
  3. Incorporate dependency control and secure build validation into the delivery pipeline.
  4. Use risk-based expedited change testing and documented recovery contingencies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Fixing systemic supply-chain causes prevents repeated introduction of the same flaw. This directly meets the requirement to prevent recurrence of vulnerable software dependencies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Active exploitability raises priority beyond routine scheduling. That action would address urgent vulnerability exposure; it does not address the case's priority to prevent recurrence of vulnerable software dependencies.

B:

Deployment inputs do not demonstrate remediation coverage. It is primarily relevant when the need is to measure patch remediation outcomes, rather than to prevent recurrence of vulnerable software dependencies.

D:

Urgent remediation must still consider availability and safe fallback. That action would safely implement emergency security patches; it does not address the case's priority to prevent recurrence of vulnerable software dependencies.

Question 400

A control implementation assumes incident evidence will be available but no retention is defined. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Integrate business continuity and safety approval into the containment playbook.
  2. Define severity, ownership, communications and response paths before going live.
  3. Revise role assignments and runbooks based on exercise findings.
  4. Establish evidence logging and retention requirements linked to response and legal needs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Forensic reconstruction depends on planned evidence preservation. This directly meets the requirement to design incident-ready control evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Response actions require business-impact awareness and delegated risk decisions. That action would align containment with business safety needs; it does not address the case's priority to design incident-ready control evidence.

B:

Detection without response responsibilities leaves risk unmanaged. It is primarily relevant when the need is to connect security detection with incident escalation, rather than to design incident-ready control evidence.

C:

Rehearsal improvements must change operating processes, not only reports. This would help strengthen incident coordination handoffs; the scenario instead requires a decision to design incident-ready control evidence.


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