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CISM Premium File: 1228 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 15, 2026

CISM Training Course: 388 Video Lectures

CISM PDF Study Guide: 817 Pages

$79.99

CISM Bundle gives you unlimited access to "CISM" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Isaca CISM Practice Test 42

Question 410

A backup solution reports successful jobs but restored data frequently fails integrity checks. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Assess backup geography and contractual processing restrictions during service design.
  2. Test recovery data consistency and address the source of corruption before assurance signoff.
  3. Segregate backup administration and protect immutable or isolated recovery copies.
  4. Reassess recovery scenarios and capacity for correlated multi-service disruption.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Backup job success is not equivalent to usable restored information. This directly meets the requirement to verify backup integrity in practice.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Secondary data copies can create the same legal obligations as active records. That action would govern backup data residency; it does not address the case's priority to verify backup integrity in practice.

C:

Separate recovery trust reduces ransomware ability to destroy restoration points. This would help defend backups against production compromise; the scenario instead requires a decision to verify backup integrity in practice.

D:

Resilience planning must reflect plausible simultaneous failures. That action would scale recovery for enterprise-wide compromise; it does not address the case's priority to verify backup integrity in practice.

Question 411

A certificate remains in use after its private key is suspected compromised. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Define tested key recovery and escrow according to business criticality and governance.
  2. Require recognized cryptographic mechanisms and independent implementation assurance.
  3. Revoke and replace affected credentials and investigate the trust impact.
  4. Separate key custody and protect keys under a controlled lifecycle.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Compromised private keys invalidate expected identity assurance until replaced. This directly meets the requirement to respond to compromised cryptographic identity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Protection must address both secrecy and authorized recoverability. That action would make encrypted data recoverable; it does not address the case's priority to respond to compromised cryptographic identity.

B:

Proprietary unreviewed algorithms create uncertainty about protection strength. It is primarily relevant when the need is to validate cryptographic mechanism suitability, rather than to respond to compromised cryptographic identity.

D:

Encryption loses value when unauthorized parties can access the corresponding keys. That action would protect cryptographic keys independently; it does not address the case's priority to respond to compromised cryptographic identity.

Question 412

A public certificate renewal succeeds but the service presents an outdated chain to clients. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Coordinate revocation propagation, service rekeying and validation of dependent applications.
  2. Validate retention, recovery and legal dependencies before key disposal.
  3. Apply approved key rotation and cryptoperiod policy based on risk and use.
  4. Verify deployed certificate chain and endpoint configuration across production paths.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Issuance alone does not guarantee correct trust presentation. This directly meets the requirement to validate deployed certificate trust.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Key incident response must address every system still trusting the compromised material. That action would complete cryptographic compromise remediation; it does not address the case's priority to validate deployed certificate trust.

B:

Destroying a key can irreversibly deny access to records with valid retention needs. It is primarily relevant when the need is to prevent premature key destruction, rather than to validate deployed certificate trust.

C:

Key aging and exposure require managed lifecycle treatment. This would help maintain appropriate key rotation; the scenario instead requires a decision to validate deployed certificate trust.

Question 413

A production administrator shares a root account to avoid individual authentication delays. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Implement named privileged identities and managed emergency access with audit trails.
  2. Separate incompatible initiation and approval roles with documented exception control.
  3. Protect break-glass credentials with controlled access, monitoring and tested recovery procedures.
  4. Enable appropriate privileged session recording and restricted vendor access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Attribution and controlled privilege use reduce unaccountable shared access. This directly meets the requirement to eliminate routine shared privileged accounts.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Segregation limits opportunities for concealed fraudulent activity. It is primarily relevant when the need is to separate incompatible transaction permissions, rather than to eliminate routine shared privileged accounts.

C:

Emergency access must remain available but not broadly discoverable. This would help secure emergency privileged access; the scenario instead requires a decision to eliminate routine shared privileged accounts.

D:

Verified actions permit investigation and contractual accountability. That action would capture privileged supplier activity; it does not address the case's priority to eliminate routine shared privileged accounts.

Question 414

A vulnerable internet-facing service is under active exploitation but its normal patch window is two months away. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Use risk-based expedited change testing and documented recovery contingencies.
  2. Escalate urgent risk treatment with safe mitigation and expedited validated remediation.
  3. Incorporate dependency control and secure build validation into the delivery pipeline.
  4. Verify applied fixes and exposure reduction on affected asset populations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Active exploitability raises priority beyond routine scheduling. This directly meets the requirement to address urgent vulnerability exposure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Urgent remediation must still consider availability and safe fallback. That action would safely implement emergency security patches; it does not address the case's priority to address urgent vulnerability exposure.

C:

Fixing systemic supply-chain causes prevents repeated introduction of the same flaw. This would help prevent recurrence of vulnerable software dependencies; the scenario instead requires a decision to address urgent vulnerability exposure.

D:

Deployment inputs do not demonstrate remediation coverage. That action would measure patch remediation outcomes; it does not address the case's priority to address urgent vulnerability exposure.

Question 415

Two technologies provide similar malware prevention but differ in monitoring coverage. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Select authentication abuse controls based on the specific threat scenario and performance requirements.
  2. Assess business impact and adjust the design before enforcing the control.
  3. Compare tested detection, response integration and total lifecycle cost against requirements.
  4. Define objective acceptance criteria, coverage targets and operating tests before procurement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Control selection should account for operational effectiveness, not only prevention claims. This directly meets the requirement to evaluate competing protective technology options.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Encryption of stored backups does not address automated online authentication abuse. That action would choose a control matched to credential attacks; it does not address the case's priority to evaluate competing protective technology options.

B:

Control choice should reduce net enterprise exposure, including availability harm. It is primarily relevant when the need is to avoid disproportionate security control disruption, rather than to evaluate competing protective technology options.

D:

Measurable criteria permit verification that chosen controls actually address risk. That action would establish testable control selection criteria; it does not address the case's priority to evaluate competing protective technology options.

Question 416

Terminated users remain active because deprovisioning relies only on periodic quarterly reviews. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Track entitlement removal verification and closure evidence after review decisions.
  2. Provide business context, entitlement purpose and risk signals to approvers.
  3. Assign service-account owners and include privileged machine identities in review scope.
  4. Establish timely termination-triggered revocation independent of certification cycles.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Periodic reviews cannot replace near-real-time leaver controls. This directly meets the requirement to revoke terminated-user access promptly.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Certification findings only reduce risk when remediation actions complete. That action would close access review revocation findings; it does not address the case's priority to revoke terminated-user access promptly.

B:

Review quality depends on sufficient evidence to judge continuing need. It is primarily relevant when the need is to make access recertification informed, rather than to revoke terminated-user access promptly.

C:

Nonhuman identities can carry critical privileges requiring accountability. This would help review privileged service account access; the scenario instead requires a decision to revoke terminated-user access promptly.

Question 417

A threat-hunting service counts total queries as proof of improved detection. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Measure meaningful findings, hypothesis validation and detection improvements.
  2. Add severity-weighted containment and outcome measures to the service dashboard.
  3. Report full service coverage and exceptions against approved operational obligations.
  4. Include data quality and actionable detection usefulness in service acceptance metrics.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Activity volume does not indicate whether hunting reduces risk. This directly meets the requirement to assess value of threat hunting outcomes.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Fast closure can mask poor incident resolution quality. It is primarily relevant when the need is to measure actual security response performance, rather than to assess value of threat hunting outcomes.

C:

Selective measurement understates response exposure. This would help prevent misleading security service SLA reporting; the scenario instead requires a decision to assess value of threat hunting outcomes.

D:

Availability alone cannot demonstrate that the security signal is usable. That action would measure monitoring service data quality; it does not address the case's priority to assess value of threat hunting outcomes.

Question 418

A production hotfix bypasses testing but remains permanently deployed without retrospective verification. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Correct authorization design and add abuse-case tests before deployment.
  2. Conduct post-emergency security review and reconcile documented approvals and tests.
  3. Revoke exposed credentials and implement secret scanning and secure storage practices.
  4. Define severity-based security release gates and documented risk exception authority.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Emergency delivery must not eliminate ongoing assurance. This directly meets the requirement to restore security assurance after emergency code changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Preventing broken object authorization requires checks at the business logic boundary. That action would resolve insecure resource authorization; it does not address the case's priority to restore security assurance after emergency code changes.

C:

Removing visible text alone does not undo exposure of a valid secret. This would help respond to leaked development credentials; the scenario instead requires a decision to restore security assurance after emergency code changes.

D:

Build success does not establish acceptable residual application risk. That action would enforce risk-aware software release gates; it does not address the case's priority to restore security assurance after emergency code changes.

Question 419

An infrastructure provider advertises strong physical security while customer workloads have public storage permissions. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Document customer access governance and supplier platform duties separately.
  2. Reassess control allocations for the new service model and adjust procedures.
  3. Correct customer-managed workload configuration and test exposure.
  4. Specify and test customer-required security logging under the service responsibility model.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Provider facilities control does not secure misconfigured customer data access. This directly meets the requirement to address customer-retained cloud configuration risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared responsibility varies by service; user authorization often remains customer-controlled. That action would clarify SaaS identity control responsibilities; it does not address the case's priority to address customer-retained cloud configuration risk.

B:

Duties differ between infrastructure, platform and software service offerings. It is primarily relevant when the need is to refresh cloud controls after service model changes, rather than to address customer-retained cloud configuration risk.

D:

Vendor defaults do not necessarily satisfy enterprise evidence requirements. That action would ensure customer cloud monitoring coverage; it does not address the case's priority to address customer-retained cloud configuration risk.

Question 420

A new segmentation policy is deployed without testing critical application dependencies. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Narrow source identities, destinations, protocols and monitoring to the needed administration path.
  2. Implement network segmentation and allow only business-required flows between zones.
  3. Define boundaries, connection conditions and monitoring at the intercompany interface.
  4. Validate permitted flows and rollback plans with business owners before full enforcement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Poorly tested segmentation can interrupt essential services. This directly meets the requirement to safely implement network zone restrictions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Least-privilege network rules reduce unnecessary attack paths. That action would restrict overbroad management network access; it does not address the case's priority to safely implement network zone restrictions.

B:

Restricted communication paths reduce lateral movement from lower-trust assets. It is primarily relevant when the need is to separate guest and financial network trust, rather than to safely implement network zone restrictions.

C:

Third-party connectivity creates attack paths that need explicit authorization. This would help govern partner network interconnection; the scenario instead requires a decision to safely implement network zone restrictions.


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