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Last Update: Sep 15, 2026

CISM Training Course: 388 Video Lectures

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Isaca CISM Practice Test 43

Question 420

A new segmentation policy is deployed without testing critical application dependencies. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Narrow source identities, destinations, protocols and monitoring to the needed administration path.
  2. Implement network segmentation and allow only business-required flows between zones.
  3. Define boundaries, connection conditions and monitoring at the intercompany interface.
  4. Validate permitted flows and rollback plans with business owners before full enforcement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Poorly tested segmentation can interrupt essential services. This directly meets the requirement to safely implement network zone restrictions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Least-privilege network rules reduce unnecessary attack paths. That action would restrict overbroad management network access; it does not address the case's priority to safely implement network zone restrictions.

B:

Restricted communication paths reduce lateral movement from lower-trust assets. It is primarily relevant when the need is to separate guest and financial network trust, rather than to safely implement network zone restrictions.

C:

Third-party connectivity creates attack paths that need explicit authorization. This would help govern partner network interconnection; the scenario instead requires a decision to safely implement network zone restrictions.

Question 421

A company stores backups in a jurisdiction inconsistent with regulated data location requirements. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Assess backup geography and contractual processing restrictions during service design.
  2. Test recovery data consistency and address the source of corruption before assurance signoff.
  3. Segregate backup administration and protect immutable or isolated recovery copies.
  4. Reassess recovery scenarios and capacity for correlated multi-service disruption.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Secondary data copies can create the same legal obligations as active records. This directly meets the requirement to govern backup data residency.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Backup job success is not equivalent to usable restored information. It is primarily relevant when the need is to verify backup integrity in practice, rather than to govern backup data residency.

C:

Separate recovery trust reduces ransomware ability to destroy restoration points. This would help defend backups against production compromise; the scenario instead requires a decision to govern backup data residency.

D:

Resilience planning must reflect plausible simultaneous failures. That action would scale recovery for enterprise-wide compromise; it does not address the case's priority to govern backup data residency.

Question 422

A review process counts approvals as complete even when rejected rights are not removed. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Provide business context, entitlement purpose and risk signals to approvers.
  2. Track entitlement removal verification and closure evidence after review decisions.
  3. Assign service-account owners and include privileged machine identities in review scope.
  4. Establish timely termination-triggered revocation independent of certification cycles.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Certification findings only reduce risk when remediation actions complete. This directly meets the requirement to close access review revocation findings.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Review quality depends on sufficient evidence to judge continuing need. That action would make access recertification informed; it does not address the case's priority to close access review revocation findings.

C:

Nonhuman identities can carry critical privileges requiring accountability. This would help review privileged service account access; the scenario instead requires a decision to close access review revocation findings.

D:

Periodic reviews cannot replace near-real-time leaver controls. That action would revoke terminated-user access promptly; it does not address the case's priority to close access review revocation findings.

Question 423

A control gap repeats each year because teams address symptoms rather than causes. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Make the accountable process owner responsible for remediation with security support.
  2. Require evidence of deployed, operating controls before approving finding closure.
  3. Perform root-cause analysis and assign sustainable corrective process improvements.
  4. Escalate overdue exposure and establish verified interim controls with documented acceptance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Systemic remediation prevents repeated failure of the same control objective. This directly meets the requirement to eliminate recurring control weaknesses.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Business-control ownership should remain with the function controlling the process. That action would assign remediation to the right process owner; it does not address the case's priority to eliminate recurring control weaknesses.

B:

Procurement progress does not equal remediation of security exposure. It is primarily relevant when the need is to close audit findings with operating proof, rather than to eliminate recurring control weaknesses.

D:

Open high-risk findings need transparent risk treatment while permanent fixes are delayed. That action would govern overdue audit remediation; it does not address the case's priority to eliminate recurring control weaknesses.

Question 424

A business continuity test succeeds but fails to document whether required recovery objectives were met. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Establish independently reachable, tested alternative communications.
  2. Test end-to-end service recovery across supporting security dependencies.
  3. Include security monitoring and evidence continuity in recovery architecture and tests.
  4. Measure actual recovery times and data loss against approved service objectives.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Exercise completion alone cannot prove business continuity adequacy. This directly meets the requirement to demonstrate recovery objective attainment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Crisis coordination requires channels resilient to the same initiating event. That action would preserve communications during infrastructure outage; it does not address the case's priority to demonstrate recovery objective attainment.

B:

A partial system restoration may not recover the business process. It is primarily relevant when the need is to verify dependencies in continuity recovery tests, rather than to demonstrate recovery objective attainment.

C:

Operations cannot safely resume with blind spots or lost investigative context. This would help maintain security assurance during recovery; the scenario instead requires a decision to demonstrate recovery objective attainment.

Question 425

Contractors receive generalized training but are unaware of customer-data handling duties. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Deliver role-specific guidance and acknowledgement before access to regulated systems.
  2. Enforce role-based training prerequisites and accountable escalation.
  3. Evaluate observed behavior and adapt content based on incident and exercise evidence.
  4. Provide targeted coaching on safe reporting and handling for the affected role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Relevant training reduces errors in handling the data actually used. This directly meets the requirement to train contractors on sensitive data obligations.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Privileged access carries heightened responsibilities that must be maintained. It is primarily relevant when the need is to sustain privileged user awareness, rather than to train contractors on sensitive data obligations.

C:

Awareness effectiveness requires outcome evidence rather than completion statistics. This would help improve training based on performance; the scenario instead requires a decision to train contractors on sensitive data obligations.

D:

Behavioral feedback addresses the action that created exposure. That action would improve unsafe phishing response behavior; it does not address the case's priority to train contractors on sensitive data obligations.

Question 426

A compromised key has been revoked but dependent systems continue using cached credentials. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Validate retention, recovery and legal dependencies before key disposal.
  2. Coordinate revocation propagation, service rekeying and validation of dependent applications.
  3. Verify deployed certificate chain and endpoint configuration across production paths.
  4. Apply approved key rotation and cryptoperiod policy based on risk and use.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Key incident response must address every system still trusting the compromised material. This directly meets the requirement to complete cryptographic compromise remediation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Destroying a key can irreversibly deny access to records with valid retention needs. That action would prevent premature key destruction; it does not address the case's priority to complete cryptographic compromise remediation.

C:

Issuance alone does not guarantee correct trust presentation. This would help validate deployed certificate trust; the scenario instead requires a decision to complete cryptographic compromise remediation.

D:

Key aging and exposure require managed lifecycle treatment. That action would maintain appropriate key rotation; it does not address the case's priority to complete cryptographic compromise remediation.

Question 427

A recovery site shares the same power grid and flood zone as the primary facility. What is the MOST appropriate next action for the information security manager?

  1. Conduct a realistic controlled recovery test measuring capacity and elapsed time.
  2. Remove failover dependencies on the failed region and test recovery access.
  3. Evaluate geographic and infrastructure separation for correlated hazards.
  4. Develop a recovery runbook ordered by dependencies and criticality.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Redundancy fails if the same incident disables both locations. This directly meets the requirement to avoid common-mode disaster recovery failure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Production recovery assurance needs representative load and service dependencies. That action would validate disaster recovery scalability; it does not address the case's priority to avoid common-mode disaster recovery failure.

B:

An alternate platform must remain operable when the primary environment is unavailable. It is primarily relevant when the need is to ensure independent disaster recovery activation, rather than to avoid common-mode disaster recovery failure.

D:

Correct restore sequencing prevents systems from starting before required services. That action would sequence application recovery after disaster; it does not address the case's priority to avoid common-mode disaster recovery failure.

Question 428

A continuity document contains untested phone numbers and undefined decision authorities. Which management response BEST addresses the stated risk or governance priority?

  1. Develop alternate business-process procedures and test their operating capacity.
  2. Include external dependency communications and service routing in continuity procedures.
  3. Establish alternative staffing and location arrangements for regional disruption.
  4. Test contact trees and authorization handoffs through periodic readiness exercises.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Procedures must be executable under real crisis conditions. This directly meets the requirement to verify business continuity communications readiness.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Business continuity sustains essential outcomes even when normal technology is unavailable. That action would maintain business operations during system outage; it does not address the case's priority to verify business continuity communications readiness.

B:

Alternate operations require coordination with parties that enable the business process. It is primarily relevant when the need is to coordinate supplier continuity during relocation, rather than to verify business continuity communications readiness.

C:

A continuity strategy must account for loss of physical facilities and workforce access. This would help maintain workforce continuity during regional crisis; the scenario instead requires a decision to verify business continuity communications readiness.

Question 429

A tabletop identifies confusion about who may suspend a critical supplier but no corrective action is assigned. Which management action BEST meets the stated requirement?

  1. Record action owners, deadlines and follow-up verification from exercise lessons.
  2. Evaluate decisions, timing, handoffs and improvement actions against exercise objectives.
  3. Include legal, privacy, communications and affected business representatives.
  4. Run a scenario-based tabletop focused on strategic escalation and disclosure choices.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Readiness improves only when revealed gaps cause operating changes. This directly meets the requirement to convert tabletop findings into remediation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Attendance is not evidence of effective crisis response capability. It is primarily relevant when the need is to measure tabletop decision effectiveness, rather than to convert tabletop findings into remediation.

C:

Cross-functional communications cannot be validated without the responsible participants. This would help exercise a complete notification chain; the scenario instead requires a decision to convert tabletop findings into remediation.

D:

Tabletop exercises rehearse roles and decisions without disrupting systems. That action would prepare executives for cyber crisis decisions; it does not address the case's priority to convert tabletop findings into remediation.

Question 430

A multi-site outage will need more responders than the security team has available. Which decision is BEST supported by the business and security evidence?

  1. Stage essential equipment and establish vendor emergency supply arrangements.
  2. Define surge staffing, external assistance and rotation plans for prolonged incidents.
  3. Prearrange scoped emergency roles and tested access to required evidence sources.
  4. Establish resilient coordination channels and offline contact information.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Extended crises exhaust normal staffing unless capability can expand. This directly meets the requirement to prepare sufficient incident response surge capacity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Response plans depend on available physical and technical resources. That action would assure incident response equipment availability; it does not address the case's priority to prepare sufficient incident response surge capacity.

C:

Missing permissions can delay investigation even with skilled responders. This would help ensure incident evidence access readiness; the scenario instead requires a decision to prepare sufficient incident response surge capacity.

D:

Crisis teams need reliable command communication when normal systems fail. That action would make crisis mobilization resilient; it does not address the case's priority to prepare sufficient incident response surge capacity.


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