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SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

SC-200 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-200" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 37

Question 360

A Copilot-generated summary names a device that is absent from the actual incident evidence. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Use supported Security Copilot investigation assistance to draft a query for review.
  2. Use supported embedded Microsoft Security Copilot incident summarization, then verify source evidence.
  3. Assess detection source, independent evidence and model limitations before classification.
  4. Recheck referenced alerts and correct the unsupported device conclusion.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Generated summaries can be mistaken and must be grounded in event records. This directly addresses the requirement to prevent hallucinated incident entity attribution.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Query suggestions aid exploration while the analyst maintains control of actions. This addresses develop assisted investigative queries; it does not directly satisfy prevent hallucinated incident entity attribution.

B:

Copilot can organize incident context for triage but does not replace analyst validation. Its intended use is to accelerate multi-alert incident summarization, whereas this case requires the analyst to prevent hallucinated incident entity attribution.

C:

AI-generated reasoning is advisory rather than a verified incident verdict. That action focuses on evaluate Copilot findings critically rather than the specified need to prevent hallucinated incident entity attribution.

Question 361

The incident shows an account restricted automatically, but a user reports normal access is still interrupted after cleanup. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Confirm remediation and follow approved recovery for the contained identity.
  2. Correlate identity sign-ins and revoke a confirmed stolen session independently of email cleanup.
  3. Investigate recipient-specific compromise evidence before expanding containment.
  4. Review the attack disruption incident and identity containment details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Identity release should be based on evidence and supported identity recovery processes. This directly addresses the requirement to restore account access after confirmed remediation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Deleting the message does not invalidate an attacker session established before removal. Its intended use is to contain a post-phishing identity session compromise, whereas this case requires the analyst to restore account access after confirmed remediation.

C:

Automatic protection of one confirmed account does not imply all recipients are compromised. That action focuses on prevent blanket identity disruption rather than the specified need to restore account access after confirmed remediation.

D:

Automated disruption can limit an ongoing attack when supported confidence criteria are met. This addresses understand automated mail-to-identity containment; it does not directly satisfy restore account access after confirmed remediation.

Question 362

A user reports a suspicious email claiming to be an administrator and asking for a password reset on an unfamiliar domain. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Review delivery status and message trace across targeted recipients.
  2. Inspect the message in Defender for Office 365 Explorer and review authentication and URL evidence.
  3. Use the authorized email remediation workflow to remove or quarantine affected copies.
  4. Correct the investigation verdict and document the false-positive evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Message investigation correlates sender, delivery, URL and authentication signals before response. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate a reported impersonation email.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Delivery evidence differentiates attempts stopped upstream from content that reached users. This addresses determine actual phishing recipient exposure; it does not directly satisfy investigate a reported impersonation email.

C:

Tenant-wide email remediation limits further user exposure after confirming the message is malicious. That action focuses on remove confirmed malicious message copies rather than the specified need to investigate a reported impersonation email.

D:

A justified verdict correction avoids repeated inappropriate remediation of legitimate mail. This addresses reverse an incorrect phishing classification; it does not directly satisfy investigate a reported impersonation email.

Question 363

An investigator wants to determine whether one suspicious account touched a second asset not mentioned in the first alert. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Pivot from incident entities into related logs and entity investigation views.
  2. Validate test scope, timestamp and affected entities before closing the incident.
  3. Search linked identity and network telemetry using the account and incident time range.
  4. Build a unified event timeline from associated alert and log timestamps.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Entity pivots can reveal downstream activity beyond initial alert scope. This directly addresses the requirement to expand incident impact through identity pivots.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Entity pivots connect alert context with observed activity across sources. This addresses investigate incident-linked entities; it does not directly satisfy expand incident impact through identity pivots.

B:

Authorized red-team activity can mimic attacker techniques without being a real breach. Its intended use is to adjudicate approved simulation alerts, whereas this case requires the analyst to expand incident impact through identity pivots.

D:

Correlation depends on event order and shared entities across detections. This addresses reconstruct incident event chronology; it does not directly satisfy expand incident impact through identity pivots.

Question 364

An analyst sees a new group owner added to a role-assignable group and suspects indirect privilege escalation. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Review role assignment audit events, requester identity and approval context.
  2. Inspect the app role grants and revoke unauthorized permissions.
  3. Validate the activation request, approval and expiry before asserting an incident.
  4. Correlate group ownership and role-eligible membership changes in directory audit logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Changes to privileged groups can confer authority even without a direct user role assignment. This directly addresses the requirement to detect indirect directory privilege escalation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Elevated role assignments provide an audit trail for potential privilege escalation. This addresses investigate unauthorized privileged role assignment; it does not directly satisfy detect indirect directory privilege escalation.

B:

Application permissions can create high-privilege access independent of interactive user sessions. Its intended use is to contain malicious app privilege elevation, whereas this case requires the analyst to detect indirect directory privilege escalation.

C:

Privileged activation can be authorized under controlled workflows. That action focuses on distinguish approved PIM elevation from misuse rather than the specified need to detect indirect directory privilege escalation.

Question 365

The SOC wants proof that risk remediation succeeded on the next legitimate sign-in. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Review subsequent successful sign-ins and current user risk state.
  2. Remove unauthorized application grants separately from user session revocation.
  3. Revoke the user sessions and investigate device compromise as appropriate.
  4. Review and correct the relevant Conditional Access policy scope and conditions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Post-remediation telemetry confirms that access follows approved authentication controls. This directly addresses the requirement to validate identity recovery after response.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Long-lived app permissions are distinct from a specific interactive session. Its intended use is to remove persistent malicious OAuth consent, whereas this case requires the analyst to validate identity recovery after response.

C:

Session revocation limits continued access using issued authentication state. That action focuses on contain a stolen browser session rather than the specified need to validate identity recovery after response.

D:

Authentication policy enforcement needs the right users, apps and device conditions. This addresses close conditional access gaps; it does not directly satisfy validate identity recovery after response.

Question 366

Several servers contain the same suspicious hash, but only one shows a malicious process execution. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Assemble the ordered phishing-to-endpoint-to-cloud evidence chain.
  2. Separate exposure or file presence from confirmed execution when scoping the incident.
  3. Convert verified distinctive behaviors into tested detection coverage and track gaps.
  4. Investigate task creation, process lineage and account context before claiming persistence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Hash presence does not establish that every file ran. This directly addresses the requirement to distinguish artifact distribution from execution impact.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Multidomain event ordering identifies how a compromise progressed. This addresses reconstruct attack sequence from initial access to impact; it does not directly satisfy distinguish artifact distribution from execution impact.

C:

Postincident analytic improvements prevent recurrence beyond one-time cleanup. That action focuses on turn attack lessons into measurable detection controls rather than the specified need to distinguish artifact distribution from execution impact.

D:

Task presence alone has both administrative and malicious explanations. This addresses validate scheduled-task persistence; it does not directly satisfy distinguish artifact distribution from execution impact.

Question 367

The sensor service runs but cannot upload telemetry due to a corporate proxy change. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Assess supported monitoring requirements and onboard the controller where eligible.
  2. Verify sensor health before concluding there were no identity attacks.
  3. Repair supported outbound connectivity and validate sensor communication.
  4. Check Defender for Identity sensor deployment and health on the replacement controller.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Sensor collection depends on network paths to the identity detection service. This directly addresses the requirement to resolve blocked identity sensor egress.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Identity detection blind spots remain when critical authentication infrastructure is excluded. This addresses close legacy controller monitoring gaps; it does not directly satisfy resolve blocked identity sensor egress.

B:

Missing telemetry cannot be interpreted as clean security evidence. Its intended use is to distinguish sensor outage from benign quiet, whereas this case requires the analyst to resolve blocked identity sensor egress.

D:

Identity detections require healthy collection from supported domain infrastructure. This addresses restore identity sensor coverage; it does not directly satisfy resolve blocked identity sensor egress.

Question 368

An attacker signs into a jump host, remotely executes a process on a second server, then contacts a domain controller. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Pivot on account sign-in and token activity in addition to network routes.
  2. Validate the ticket, source identity and session context before labeling it malicious.
  3. Investigate service creation, remote authentication and account origin across endpoints.
  4. Correlate logon, remote execution and network events to reconstruct the host chain.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Multihost evidence reveals sequential movement that individual alerts cannot describe. This directly addresses the requirement to reconstruct a multihop intrusion path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Identity correlation can reveal movement hidden from a simple network topology view. This addresses trace identity-mediated lateral movement; it does not directly satisfy reconstruct a multihop intrusion path.

B:

Authorized remote administration can share observable artifacts with attacker movement. Its intended use is to distinguish scheduled administration from lateral movement, whereas this case requires the analyst to reconstruct a multihop intrusion path.

C:

Remote service execution combined with suspicious account activity can indicate credential abuse. That action focuses on examine suspicious remote service deployment rather than the specified need to reconstruct a multihop intrusion path.

Question 369

An analyst needs a suggested next investigative query for a suspicious identity but does not want automatic remediation. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Use supported Security Copilot investigation assistance to draft a query for review.
  2. Use supported embedded Microsoft Security Copilot incident summarization, then verify source evidence.
  3. Recheck referenced alerts and correct the unsupported device conclusion.
  4. Assess detection source, independent evidence and model limitations before classification.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Query suggestions aid exploration while the analyst maintains control of actions. This directly addresses the requirement to develop assisted investigative queries.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Copilot can organize incident context for triage but does not replace analyst validation. Its intended use is to accelerate multi-alert incident summarization, whereas this case requires the analyst to develop assisted investigative queries.

C:

Generated summaries can be mistaken and must be grounded in event records. That action focuses on prevent hallucinated incident entity attribution rather than the specified need to develop assisted investigative queries.

D:

AI-generated reasoning is advisory rather than a verified incident verdict. This addresses evaluate Copilot findings critically; it does not directly satisfy develop assisted investigative queries.

Question 370

An insider risk alert is critical and must be linked with endpoint evidence for possible data theft. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Evaluate approval records and document the false positive before escalation.
  2. Correlate insider case activity with endpoint and identity security telemetry.
  3. Review the insider risk alert with approved investigator role and case context.
  4. Follow Purview role and privacy restrictions rather than granting broad user activity access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Multi-source evidence strengthens attribution and impact assessment. This directly addresses the requirement to correlate insider exfiltration signals.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Contextual evidence prevents a benign business action being treated as malicious by default. This addresses adjudicate insider risk false positives; it does not directly satisfy correlate insider exfiltration signals.

C:

Insider risk detections combine activity and contextual indicators subject to privacy controls. That action focuses on investigate suspicious predeparture downloads rather than the specified need to correlate insider exfiltration signals.

D:

Insider investigations require designated roles and safeguards against unnecessary exposure. This addresses protect sensitive insider investigation information; it does not directly satisfy correlate insider exfiltration signals.


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