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SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

SC-200 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-200" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 35

Question 340

The SOC finds PsExec-like service creation on multiple endpoints under an unknown account. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Pivot on account sign-in and token activity in addition to network routes.
  2. Correlate logon, remote execution and network events to reconstruct the host chain.
  3. Validate the ticket, source identity and session context before labeling it malicious.
  4. Investigate service creation, remote authentication and account origin across endpoints.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Remote service execution combined with suspicious account activity can indicate credential abuse. This directly addresses the requirement to examine suspicious remote service deployment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Identity correlation can reveal movement hidden from a simple network topology view. This addresses trace identity-mediated lateral movement; it does not directly satisfy examine suspicious remote service deployment.

B:

Multihost evidence reveals sequential movement that individual alerts cannot describe. Its intended use is to reconstruct a multihop intrusion path, whereas this case requires the analyst to examine suspicious remote service deployment.

C:

Authorized remote administration can share observable artifacts with attacker movement. That action focuses on distinguish scheduled administration from lateral movement rather than the specified need to examine suspicious remote service deployment.

Question 341

Defender for Identity flags suspicious NTLM authentication moving between domain hosts overnight. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Inspect identity alert evidence, source machines and targeted accounts.
  2. Correlate identity alerts with ticket activity and endpoint process timelines.
  3. Trace identity and device timelines backward to the first observed abnormal authentication.
  4. Validate service-account baselines before classifying the pattern as attacker lateral movement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Authentication patterns across hosts can indicate lateral movement using stolen credentials. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate on-premises identity lateral movement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Kerberos and endpoint observations help reconstruct ticket-based credential abuse. Its intended use is to investigate suspicious Kerberos ticket reuse, whereas this case requires the analyst to investigate on-premises identity lateral movement.

C:

Chronological correlation helps identify the likely initial compromise. That action focuses on reconstruct lateral-movement origin rather than the specified need to investigate on-premises identity lateral movement.

D:

Known account behavior provides important false-positive context. This addresses distinguish normal privileged service authentication; it does not directly satisfy investigate on-premises identity lateral movement.

Question 342

The analyst sees a series of cloud file downloads from an unmanaged device shortly after a suspicious OAuth grant. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Verify target service tenant and sharing destination instead of inferring personal ownership.
  2. Correlate OAuth consent and subsequent app access records before token revocation.
  3. Review remaining service principal role assignments and app credentials.
  4. Enumerate app users, active grants and relevant anomalous sessions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Connected permission and access evidence establishes likely data exposure. This directly addresses the requirement to tie delegated app consent to downloaded content.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cloud service brand alone does not distinguish sanctioned from personal account context. This addresses classify actual cloud upload destination; it does not directly satisfy tie delegated app consent to downloaded content.

C:

Removing a user consent record may not eliminate every application access path. That action focuses on detect residual application identity persistence rather than the specified need to tie delegated app consent to downloaded content.

D:

Application inventory and session telemetry inform tenant impact scoping. This addresses assess tenant exposure to a compromised SaaS app; it does not directly satisfy tie delegated app consent to downloaded content.

Question 343

A Defender for Servers alert indicates suspicious execution on an Azure VM. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Inspect the connected cloud workload alert and its incident correlation or ingestion path.
  2. Prioritize secure configuration remediation based on the recommendation and asset risk.
  3. Investigate the workload security alert and correlate the VM process evidence.
  4. Review storage threat alerts and access logs in addition to posture recommendations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Workload protection alerts provide compromise indicators requiring entity investigation. This directly addresses the requirement to triage suspicious cloud VM execution.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cross-product incident handling can bring workload security alerts into central triage. This addresses correlate cloud workload alerts with SIEM incidents; it does not directly satisfy triage suspicious cloud VM execution.

B:

Security recommendations describe posture weaknesses rather than confirmed compromise. Its intended use is to remediate cloud posture exposure, whereas this case requires the analyst to triage suspicious cloud VM execution.

D:

Exposure recommendations alone do not prove data transfer occurred. This addresses distinguish cloud posture from exfiltration evidence; it does not directly satisfy triage suspicious cloud VM execution.

Question 344

An investigation needs identity activity from an unmonitored legacy controller that was never onboarded. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Repair supported outbound connectivity and validate sensor communication.
  2. Check Defender for Identity sensor deployment and health on the replacement controller.
  3. Verify sensor health before concluding there were no identity attacks.
  4. Assess supported monitoring requirements and onboard the controller where eligible.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Identity detection blind spots remain when critical authentication infrastructure is excluded. This directly addresses the requirement to close legacy controller monitoring gaps.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sensor collection depends on network paths to the identity detection service. This addresses resolve blocked identity sensor egress; it does not directly satisfy close legacy controller monitoring gaps.

B:

Identity detections require healthy collection from supported domain infrastructure. Its intended use is to restore identity sensor coverage, whereas this case requires the analyst to close legacy controller monitoring gaps.

C:

Missing telemetry cannot be interpreted as clean security evidence. That action focuses on distinguish sensor outage from benign quiet rather than the specified need to close legacy controller monitoring gaps.

Question 345

Defender for Cloud Apps flags high-volume downloads by an account that normally reads only a few files. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Examine activity anomalies and compare with current job tasks before classifying exfiltration.
  2. Update the sanctioned-app classification and associated access or DLP controls.
  3. Scope restrictions to risky apps, data and users based on verified policy requirements.
  4. Review discovered cloud app use and sanction status, then enforce the approved control.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Deviation-based signals need account context to judge intent and exposure. This directly addresses the requirement to triage bulk cloud download anomalies.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Governance classification should follow verified risk and policy decisions. Its intended use is to update approved cloud app status, whereas this case requires the analyst to triage bulk cloud download anomalies.

C:

Overbroad global blocks can disrupt legitimate collaboration without improving targeted detection. That action focuses on right-size unsanctioned app response rather than the specified need to triage bulk cloud download anomalies.

D:

Cloud app discovery and governance support risk-based handling of unsanctioned services. This addresses investigate shadow IT sensitive uploads; it does not directly satisfy triage bulk cloud download anomalies.

Question 346

A PIM activation is recorded for a privileged role but the approval was legitimate and time-bounded. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Review role assignment audit events, requester identity and approval context.
  2. Validate the activation request, approval and expiry before asserting an incident.
  3. Correlate group ownership and role-eligible membership changes in directory audit logs.
  4. Inspect the app role grants and revoke unauthorized permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Privileged activation can be authorized under controlled workflows. This directly addresses the requirement to distinguish approved PIM elevation from misuse.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Elevated role assignments provide an audit trail for potential privilege escalation. This addresses investigate unauthorized privileged role assignment; it does not directly satisfy distinguish approved PIM elevation from misuse.

C:

Changes to privileged groups can confer authority even without a direct user role assignment. That action focuses on detect indirect directory privilege escalation rather than the specified need to distinguish approved PIM elevation from misuse.

D:

Application permissions can create high-privilege access independent of interactive user sessions. This addresses contain malicious app privilege elevation; it does not directly satisfy distinguish approved PIM elevation from misuse.

Question 347

A high-privilege service account performs predictable authentication from approved batch servers. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Trace identity and device timelines backward to the first observed abnormal authentication.
  2. Correlate identity alerts with ticket activity and endpoint process timelines.
  3. Validate service-account baselines before classifying the pattern as attacker lateral movement.
  4. Inspect identity alert evidence, source machines and targeted accounts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Known account behavior provides important false-positive context. This directly addresses the requirement to distinguish normal privileged service authentication.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Chronological correlation helps identify the likely initial compromise. This addresses reconstruct lateral-movement origin; it does not directly satisfy distinguish normal privileged service authentication.

B:

Kerberos and endpoint observations help reconstruct ticket-based credential abuse. Its intended use is to investigate suspicious Kerberos ticket reuse, whereas this case requires the analyst to distinguish normal privileged service authentication.

D:

Authentication patterns across hosts can indicate lateral movement using stolen credentials. This addresses investigate on-premises identity lateral movement; it does not directly satisfy distinguish normal privileged service authentication.

Question 348

A suspicious identity creates a new shared access signature with excessive permissions on a storage account. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Search storage data-plane diagnostic logs for the deletion operation.
  2. Review storage access logs, actor identity and network context for the alert window.
  3. Validate data classification and approved exposure before labeling the configuration malicious.
  4. Investigate the SAS creation and revoke or rotate exposed access as authorized.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Overprivileged SAS tokens can enable unauthorized access after issuance. This directly addresses the requirement to contain suspicious storage delegated access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Resource-level audit operations show whether and when blobs were deleted. This addresses investigate actual blob deletion; it does not directly satisfy contain suspicious storage delegated access.

B:

Data-plane telemetry helps determine whether an exfiltration attempt succeeded. Its intended use is to assess suspicious cloud storage downloads, whereas this case requires the analyst to contain suspicious storage delegated access.

C:

Public access can be intentional for non-sensitive datasets but needs explicit governance. That action focuses on distinguish approved public storage from risk rather than the specified need to contain suspicious storage delegated access.

Question 349

The investigation has a suspicious attachment SHA256 but no known subject line. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Pivot to matching attachment file hash in supported email investigation data.
  2. Filter Defender Explorer by sender domain and delivery time.
  3. Review Safe Links click telemetry for that URL and affected accounts.
  4. Correlate message identifiers, recipient details, and forwarding events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

File-hash matching finds reuse despite changing email subjects or senders. This directly addresses the requirement to locate an attachment reused in phishing.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Sender and time filters locate related emails across mailboxes. Its intended use is to find related emails by sender IOC, whereas this case requires the analyst to locate an attachment reused in phishing.

C:

URL click evidence distinguishes receipt from actual interaction. That action focuses on identify recipients who clicked malicious links rather than the specified need to locate an attachment reused in phishing.

D:

Message investigation can reconstruct recipients and routing beyond the original sender. This addresses trace lateral email forwarding; it does not directly satisfy locate an attachment reused in phishing.

Question 350

A critical incident remains unassigned across a shift change and no analyst has accepted responsibility. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Escalate and reassign to the authorized owner while preserving the incident history.
  2. Assign an incident owner and set its active status under the SOC escalation policy.
  3. Use an automation rule or playbook to attach approved incident tasks.
  4. Add documented resolution classification and relevant evidence before closing.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Named ownership reduces the chance of unhandled high-severity cases. This directly addresses the requirement to establish accountable incident ownership.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Controlled reassignment maintains accountability across operating teams. This addresses hand off incident response responsibility; it does not directly satisfy establish accountable incident ownership.

C:

Standard task templates support predictable handling of repeated high-risk incident types. That action focuses on standardize ransomware triage steps rather than the specified need to establish accountable incident ownership.

D:

Case closure records support auditability and postincident review. This addresses document a defensible incident resolution; it does not directly satisfy establish accountable incident ownership.


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