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SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

SC-200 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-200" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 36

Question 350

A critical incident remains unassigned across a shift change and no analyst has accepted responsibility. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Escalate and reassign to the authorized owner while preserving the incident history.
  2. Assign an incident owner and set its active status under the SOC escalation policy.
  3. Use an automation rule or playbook to attach approved incident tasks.
  4. Add documented resolution classification and relevant evidence before closing.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Named ownership reduces the chance of unhandled high-severity cases. This directly addresses the requirement to establish accountable incident ownership.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Controlled reassignment maintains accountability across operating teams. This addresses hand off incident response responsibility; it does not directly satisfy establish accountable incident ownership.

C:

Standard task templates support predictable handling of repeated high-risk incident types. That action focuses on standardize ransomware triage steps rather than the specified need to establish accountable incident ownership.

D:

Case closure records support auditability and postincident review. This addresses document a defensible incident resolution; it does not directly satisfy establish accountable incident ownership.

Question 351

A sanctioned SaaS provider is compromised and the SOC wants to assess all identities with access. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Correlate OAuth consent and subsequent app access records before token revocation.
  2. Verify target service tenant and sharing destination instead of inferring personal ownership.
  3. Enumerate app users, active grants and relevant anomalous sessions.
  4. Review remaining service principal role assignments and app credentials.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Application inventory and session telemetry inform tenant impact scoping. This directly addresses the requirement to assess tenant exposure to a compromised SaaS app.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Connected permission and access evidence establishes likely data exposure. This addresses tie delegated app consent to downloaded content; it does not directly satisfy assess tenant exposure to a compromised SaaS app.

B:

Cloud service brand alone does not distinguish sanctioned from personal account context. Its intended use is to classify actual cloud upload destination, whereas this case requires the analyst to assess tenant exposure to a compromised SaaS app.

D:

Removing a user consent record may not eliminate every application access path. This addresses detect residual application identity persistence; it does not directly satisfy assess tenant exposure to a compromised SaaS app.

Question 352

A compromised endpoint uploads gigabytes of data to an unrecognized cloud destination. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Preserve surviving identity, storage and network telemetry and document missing logs.
  2. Treat the archive creation as staging and continue hunting for subsequent transfer evidence.
  3. Verify approved destination and change context before declaring data theft.
  4. Correlate process, network and content movement evidence to assess actual exfiltration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Transfer size, process origin and destination can establish whether sensitive information left. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate outbound data exfiltration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cross-source evidence can bound impact when local endpoint records were tampered with. This addresses reconstruct exfiltration despite log deletion; it does not directly satisfy investigate outbound data exfiltration.

B:

Data staging raises exfiltration risk but does not alone prove external transmission. Its intended use is to distinguish data staging from successful exfiltration, whereas this case requires the analyst to investigate outbound data exfiltration.

C:

High-volume transfers are not malicious without considering authorization and purpose. That action focuses on adjudicate legitimate bulk data movement rather than the specified need to investigate outbound data exfiltration.

Question 353

An employee says a legitimate email vanished after an automated phishing verdict. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Review quarantine and post-delivery action evidence before restoring the benign message.
  2. Confirm Zero-hour auto purge actions and the post-delivery detection verdict.
  3. Investigate click telemetry and identity compromise despite mailbox removal.
  4. Verify supported threat policies and actual recipient remediation status.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Restoration requires a documented false-positive determination. This directly addresses the requirement to adjudicate a possibly false ZAP action.

Incorrect Answers

B:

ZAP can take action on eligible malicious mail after initial delivery. Its intended use is to verify post-delivery automatic email remediation, whereas this case requires the analyst to adjudicate a possibly false ZAP action.

C:

Post-delivery cleanup cannot undo interactions occurring before removal. That action focuses on assess residual exposure after ZAP rather than the specified need to adjudicate a possibly false ZAP action.

D:

Post-delivery action coverage depends on policy and detection behavior. This addresses avoid assuming universal post-delivery purging; it does not directly satisfy adjudicate a possibly false ZAP action.

Question 354

A honeytoken account unexpectedly appears in a production login script after a configuration change. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Restrict test context and maintain production alerting for genuine unexpected use.
  2. Investigate the script change and decoy account access before determining malicious intent.
  3. Use dedicated nonoperational decoy accounts instead of production service identities.
  4. Treat the honeytoken authentication as a high-signal investigative lead.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Misconfiguration can cause decoy triggers but still requires evidence review. This directly addresses the requirement to adjudicate unexpected honeytoken activity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Blanket suppression would remove the value of the decoy detector. This addresses preserve meaningful honeytoken coverage; it does not directly satisfy adjudicate unexpected honeytoken activity.

C:

Decoys must not interfere with real business authentication. That action focuses on avoid disrupting real services with decoys rather than the specified need to adjudicate unexpected honeytoken activity.

D:

A deliberately unused decoy credential being exercised can indicate adversary discovery. This addresses investigate use of decoy credentials; it does not directly satisfy adjudicate unexpected honeytoken activity.

Question 355

An embedded AI investigation proposes isolating a production server after correlating suspicious events. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Reject the unsafe action and follow approved incident response procedures.
  2. Enforce applicable identity and least-privilege access controls for the Copilot workflow.
  3. Verify the recommended evidence and obtain required approval before high-impact containment.
  4. Open the original source events and reconstruct the timeline before adjudication.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Assistant action suggestions need human validation and existing authorization boundaries. This directly addresses the requirement to gate AI-proposed server isolation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security response should not disable essential forensic visibility based on untrusted suggestions. This addresses prevent unsafe AI response recommendations; it does not directly satisfy gate AI-proposed server isolation.

B:

Assisted investigation should respect the security boundaries of connected data and actions. Its intended use is to restrict agentic investigation data access, whereas this case requires the analyst to gate AI-proposed server isolation.

D:

Source telemetry anchors chronology more reliably than a generated narrative. This addresses verify AI-inferred lateral-movement sequence; it does not directly satisfy gate AI-proposed server isolation.

Question 356

The investigation confirms an unapproved app has a tenant-wide high-privilege grant. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Review OAuth app permissions, publisher reputation and consent audit evidence.
  2. Compare granted scopes with authorized business use and publisher verification.
  3. Correlate application activity, audit and cloud access records for the granted period.
  4. Revoke the dangerous app consent or permissions and assess existing token access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Removing grants reduces continued misuse of delegated or app-only permissions. This directly addresses the requirement to contain unauthorized OAuth application access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Risky delegated OAuth grants can enable persistent access without password theft. This addresses investigate suspicious OAuth consent; it does not directly satisfy contain unauthorized OAuth application access.

B:

Consent risk depends on permissions, legitimacy and evidence of misuse. Its intended use is to adjudicate benign OAuth consent, whereas this case requires the analyst to contain unauthorized OAuth application access.

C:

Consent removal alone cannot establish whether data was previously accessed. That action focuses on assess historical OAuth app impact rather than the specified need to contain unauthorized OAuth application access.

Question 357

Defender for Cloud reports an internet-exposed VM with a critical recommendation but no confirmed attack alert. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Prioritize secure configuration remediation based on the recommendation and asset risk.
  2. Review storage threat alerts and access logs in addition to posture recommendations.
  3. Investigate the workload security alert and correlate the VM process evidence.
  4. Inspect the connected cloud workload alert and its incident correlation or ingestion path.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Security recommendations describe posture weaknesses rather than confirmed compromise. This directly addresses the requirement to remediate cloud posture exposure.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Exposure recommendations alone do not prove data transfer occurred. Its intended use is to distinguish cloud posture from exfiltration evidence, whereas this case requires the analyst to remediate cloud posture exposure.

C:

Workload protection alerts provide compromise indicators requiring entity investigation. That action focuses on triage suspicious cloud VM execution rather than the specified need to remediate cloud posture exposure.

D:

Cross-product incident handling can bring workload security alerts into central triage. This addresses correlate cloud workload alerts with SIEM incidents; it does not directly satisfy remediate cloud posture exposure.

Question 358

A junior analyst wants full employee activity visibility without insider risk case authorization. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Correlate insider case activity with endpoint and identity security telemetry.
  2. Follow Purview role and privacy restrictions rather than granting broad user activity access.
  3. Evaluate approval records and document the false positive before escalation.
  4. Review the insider risk alert with approved investigator role and case context.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Insider investigations require designated roles and safeguards against unnecessary exposure. This directly addresses the requirement to protect sensitive insider investigation information.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Multi-source evidence strengthens attribution and impact assessment. This addresses correlate insider exfiltration signals; it does not directly satisfy protect sensitive insider investigation information.

C:

Contextual evidence prevents a benign business action being treated as malicious by default. That action focuses on adjudicate insider risk false positives rather than the specified need to protect sensitive insider investigation information.

D:

Insider risk detections combine activity and contextual indicators subject to privacy controls. This addresses investigate suspicious predeparture downloads; it does not directly satisfy protect sensitive insider investigation information.

Question 359

Security sees repeated denied access attempts from a risky country but no successful token issuance. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Remove unauthorized mail rules in addition to credential and session remediation.
  2. Compare registration timestamp with the authorized recovery procedure before adjudicating.
  3. Preserve the attempted-sign-in evidence without asserting successful account compromise.
  4. Investigate MFA-related sign-in logs and revoke affected sessions while securing methods.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Failure-only authentication records support attempted intrusion, not proven access. This directly addresses the requirement to evaluate blocked malicious login attempts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Persistence may survive a password reset when account configuration was changed. This addresses eliminate cross-service account persistence; it does not directly satisfy evaluate blocked malicious login attempts.

B:

Contextual verification separates authorized security maintenance from persistence. Its intended use is to validate new privileged authentication methods, whereas this case requires the analyst to evaluate blocked malicious login attempts.

D:

MFA fatigue and unauthorized approvals can permit adversary session establishment. This addresses respond to compromised MFA challenge; it does not directly satisfy evaluate blocked malicious login attempts.

Question 360

A Copilot-generated summary names a device that is absent from the actual incident evidence. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Use supported Security Copilot investigation assistance to draft a query for review.
  2. Use supported embedded Microsoft Security Copilot incident summarization, then verify source evidence.
  3. Assess detection source, independent evidence and model limitations before classification.
  4. Recheck referenced alerts and correct the unsupported device conclusion.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Generated summaries can be mistaken and must be grounded in event records. This directly addresses the requirement to prevent hallucinated incident entity attribution.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Query suggestions aid exploration while the analyst maintains control of actions. This addresses develop assisted investigative queries; it does not directly satisfy prevent hallucinated incident entity attribution.

B:

Copilot can organize incident context for triage but does not replace analyst validation. Its intended use is to accelerate multi-alert incident summarization, whereas this case requires the analyst to prevent hallucinated incident entity attribution.

C:

AI-generated reasoning is advisory rather than a verified incident verdict. That action focuses on evaluate Copilot findings critically rather than the specified need to prevent hallucinated incident entity attribution.


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