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SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

SC-200 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-200" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 38

Question 370

An insider risk alert is critical and must be linked with endpoint evidence for possible data theft. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Evaluate approval records and document the false positive before escalation.
  2. Correlate insider case activity with endpoint and identity security telemetry.
  3. Review the insider risk alert with approved investigator role and case context.
  4. Follow Purview role and privacy restrictions rather than granting broad user activity access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Multi-source evidence strengthens attribution and impact assessment. This directly addresses the requirement to correlate insider exfiltration signals.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Contextual evidence prevents a benign business action being treated as malicious by default. This addresses adjudicate insider risk false positives; it does not directly satisfy correlate insider exfiltration signals.

C:

Insider risk detections combine activity and contextual indicators subject to privacy controls. That action focuses on investigate suspicious predeparture downloads rather than the specified need to correlate insider exfiltration signals.

D:

Insider investigations require designated roles and safeguards against unnecessary exposure. This addresses protect sensitive insider investigation information; it does not directly satisfy correlate insider exfiltration signals.

Question 371

A spoof intelligence allow entry was added too broadly and now permits untrusted senders. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Examine sender authentication verdicts and spoof intelligence before taking action.
  2. Compare header identity fields and investigate the reply-to domain.
  3. Narrow or remove the inappropriate spoof allow policy after evidence review.
  4. Check the service's authorized sending configuration and aligned authentication results.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Broad spoof exceptions can bypass intended authentication controls. This directly addresses the requirement to remediate unsafe spoof allow entries.

Incorrect Answers

A:

SPF, DKIM and DMARC evidence helps assess address impersonation. This addresses investigate domain spoofing; it does not directly satisfy remediate unsafe spoof allow entries.

B:

Header examination reveals reply-path manipulation despite apparently familiar display names. Its intended use is to detect deceptive reply-to addresses, whereas this case requires the analyst to remediate unsafe spoof allow entries.

D:

Validated sender configuration helps distinguish genuine delegation from impersonation. This addresses verify third-party mail identity; it does not directly satisfy remediate unsafe spoof allow entries.

Question 372

A Microsoft Sentinel incident identifies an IP and account and responders want the associated host and sign-in details. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Validate test scope, timestamp and affected entities before closing the incident.
  2. Build a unified event timeline from associated alert and log timestamps.
  3. Search linked identity and network telemetry using the account and incident time range.
  4. Pivot from incident entities into related logs and entity investigation views.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Entity pivots connect alert context with observed activity across sources. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate incident-linked entities.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authorized red-team activity can mimic attacker techniques without being a real breach. This addresses adjudicate approved simulation alerts; it does not directly satisfy investigate incident-linked entities.

B:

Correlation depends on event order and shared entities across detections. Its intended use is to reconstruct incident event chronology, whereas this case requires the analyst to investigate incident-linked entities.

C:

Entity pivots can reveal downstream activity beyond initial alert scope. That action focuses on expand incident impact through identity pivots rather than the specified need to investigate incident-linked entities.

Question 373

An external EDR sends cases with no stable device identifier and Sentinel correlates them incorrectly. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Correct entity normalization or mapping in the integration before trusting correlation.
  2. Query the related CommonSecurityLog data by source and event identifiers.
  3. Verify source environment and trusted integration context before urgent containment.
  4. Investigate the connector health and defer unsupported attribution claims.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Entity mapping quality influences cross-product incident fidelity. This directly addresses the requirement to repair third-party alert entity attribution.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Raw firewall activity corroborates a normalized alert's source and destination context. Its intended use is to validate third-party firewall alert evidence, whereas this case requires the analyst to repair third-party alert entity attribution.

C:

Source integrity and environment classification matter in alert severity assessment. That action focuses on avoid reacting to test-tenant alerts as production rather than the specified need to repair third-party alert entity attribution.

D:

Alert summaries may omit critical forensic detail when raw collection is broken. This addresses address third-party raw-evidence gaps; it does not directly satisfy repair third-party alert entity attribution.

Question 374

A user reports that MFA prompts were approved accidentally and suspicious sign-ins followed. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Remove unauthorized mail rules in addition to credential and session remediation.
  2. Investigate MFA-related sign-in logs and revoke affected sessions while securing methods.
  3. Compare registration timestamp with the authorized recovery procedure before adjudicating.
  4. Preserve the attempted-sign-in evidence without asserting successful account compromise.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

MFA fatigue and unauthorized approvals can permit adversary session establishment. This directly addresses the requirement to respond to compromised MFA challenge.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Persistence may survive a password reset when account configuration was changed. This addresses eliminate cross-service account persistence; it does not directly satisfy respond to compromised MFA challenge.

C:

Contextual verification separates authorized security maintenance from persistence. That action focuses on validate new privileged authentication methods rather than the specified need to respond to compromised MFA challenge.

D:

Failure-only authentication records support attempted intrusion, not proven access. This addresses evaluate blocked malicious login attempts; it does not directly satisfy respond to compromised MFA challenge.

Question 375

A workload alert references a short-lived pod that was automatically replaced. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Scope containment to affected workloads after evidence-backed impact assessment.
  2. Remediate excessive Kubernetes workload permissions as a posture issue.
  3. Correlate pod identity, node evidence and central logs before relying on live pod access.
  4. Review container runtime alerts, image provenance and pod activity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Ephemeral containers require retained events for reconstruction after termination. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate an ephemeral compromised pod.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Proportionate containment protects availability while addressing confirmed malicious activity. This addresses avoid disproportionate Kubernetes response; it does not directly satisfy investigate an ephemeral compromised pod.

B:

Elevated rights increase exposure even without direct compromise evidence. Its intended use is to reduce Kubernetes service-account privilege, whereas this case requires the analyst to investigate an ephemeral compromised pod.

D:

Runtime process deviations can signal container compromise. This addresses investigate Kubernetes shell execution; it does not directly satisfy investigate an ephemeral compromised pod.

Question 376

A case was grouped incorrectly because unrelated users share a corporate proxy IP. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Review each contributing alert separately before assigning an overall verdict.
  2. Sort contributing alerts by event time and inspect initial detection evidence.
  3. Correlate common account, host and IP entities into a multistage incident timeline.
  4. Refine correlation using stronger identity or host indicators beyond the shared egress IP.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Shared infrastructure addresses are weak unique identifiers for incident grouping. This directly addresses the requirement to avoid false correlation via shared proxies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Correlated incident status should not erase distinct alert evidence. This addresses adjudicate mixed-quality incident alerts; it does not directly satisfy avoid false correlation via shared proxies.

B:

Earliest observed activity and initial alert creation are different milestones worth distinguishing. Its intended use is to establish the incident's first detection, whereas this case requires the analyst to avoid false correlation via shared proxies.

C:

Shared entities and chronological phases can identify one connected intrusion. That action focuses on link multistage Sentinel alert evidence rather than the specified need to avoid false correlation via shared proxies.

Question 377

An incident requires involvement from a different response team because the affected workload is outside the SOC's control. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Escalate and reassign to the authorized owner while preserving the incident history.
  2. Use an automation rule or playbook to attach approved incident tasks.
  3. Assign an incident owner and set its active status under the SOC escalation policy.
  4. Add documented resolution classification and relevant evidence before closing.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Controlled reassignment maintains accountability across operating teams. This directly addresses the requirement to hand off incident response responsibility.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Standard task templates support predictable handling of repeated high-risk incident types. Its intended use is to standardize ransomware triage steps, whereas this case requires the analyst to hand off incident response responsibility.

C:

Named ownership reduces the chance of unhandled high-severity cases. That action focuses on establish accountable incident ownership rather than the specified need to hand off incident response responsibility.

D:

Case closure records support auditability and postincident review. This addresses document a defensible incident resolution; it does not directly satisfy hand off incident response responsibility.

Question 378

A responder proposes deleting every cluster node in response to one isolated suspicious container. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Correlate pod identity, node evidence and central logs before relying on live pod access.
  2. Scope containment to affected workloads after evidence-backed impact assessment.
  3. Remediate excessive Kubernetes workload permissions as a posture issue.
  4. Review container runtime alerts, image provenance and pod activity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Proportionate containment protects availability while addressing confirmed malicious activity. This directly addresses the requirement to avoid disproportionate Kubernetes response.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ephemeral containers require retained events for reconstruction after termination. This addresses investigate an ephemeral compromised pod; it does not directly satisfy avoid disproportionate Kubernetes response.

C:

Elevated rights increase exposure even without direct compromise evidence. That action focuses on reduce Kubernetes service-account privilege rather than the specified need to avoid disproportionate Kubernetes response.

D:

Runtime process deviations can signal container compromise. This addresses investigate Kubernetes shell execution; it does not directly satisfy avoid disproportionate Kubernetes response.

Question 379

A DCSync-related alert identifies a service account with broader directory rights than required. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Correlate Defender for Identity evidence with directory audit and controller details.
  2. Investigate a potential DCSync attempt and its requesting identity.
  3. Review and remove unnecessary replication permissions after impact assessment.
  4. Validate the approved source identity and change window before suppressing the signal.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Least-privilege directory access reduces the ability to retrieve sensitive account material. This directly addresses the requirement to remediate excessive directory replication privileges.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Controller attribution helps determine affected directory scope. This addresses identify the directory replication target; it does not directly satisfy remediate excessive directory replication privileges.

B:

Unauthorized replication operations can expose directory password material. Its intended use is to detect suspicious directory replication behavior, whereas this case requires the analyst to remediate excessive directory replication privileges.

D:

Authorized replication activity differs from unexpected privilege misuse. This addresses adjudicate authorized directory replication; it does not directly satisfy remediate excessive directory replication privileges.

Question 380

An attachment is flagged by Safe Attachments detonation and the team needs the malicious behavior evidence. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Correlate the hash across email and device evidence before scoping containment.
  2. Verify the file hash and detection evidence before any narrowly justified release.
  3. Pivot to the recipient's endpoint timeline and file execution events.
  4. Review the detonation verdict and associated file or process indicators.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Sandbox analysis can expose malicious attachment behavior beyond static filename patterns. This directly addresses the requirement to validate attachment detonation evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared file indicators connect delivery and execution stages across products. This addresses correlate malicious attachments with endpoints; it does not directly satisfy validate attachment detonation evidence.

B:

File-specific evidence prevents a filename-only exception from creating an unsafe bypass. Its intended use is to safely adjudicate attachment false positives, whereas this case requires the analyst to validate attachment detonation evidence.

C:

Mailbox cleanup does not prove downloaded payloads were not executed. That action focuses on investigate post-delivery attachment execution rather than the specified need to validate attachment detonation evidence.


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