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SC-200 Premium File: 499 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 30, 2026

SC-200 Training Course: 47 Video Lectures

SC-200 PDF Study Guide: 441 Pages

$79.99

SC-200 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "SC-200" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 39

Question 380

An attachment is flagged by Safe Attachments detonation and the team needs the malicious behavior evidence. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Correlate the hash across email and device evidence before scoping containment.
  2. Verify the file hash and detection evidence before any narrowly justified release.
  3. Pivot to the recipient's endpoint timeline and file execution events.
  4. Review the detonation verdict and associated file or process indicators.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Sandbox analysis can expose malicious attachment behavior beyond static filename patterns. This directly addresses the requirement to validate attachment detonation evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared file indicators connect delivery and execution stages across products. This addresses correlate malicious attachments with endpoints; it does not directly satisfy validate attachment detonation evidence.

B:

File-specific evidence prevents a filename-only exception from creating an unsafe bypass. Its intended use is to safely adjudicate attachment false positives, whereas this case requires the analyst to validate attachment detonation evidence.

C:

Mailbox cleanup does not prove downloaded payloads were not executed. That action focuses on investigate post-delivery attachment execution rather than the specified need to validate attachment detonation evidence.

Question 381

Defender for Identity flags authentication involving a designated honeytoken user that should never be used. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Treat the honeytoken authentication as a high-signal investigative lead.
  2. Restrict test context and maintain production alerting for genuine unexpected use.
  3. Investigate the script change and decoy account access before determining malicious intent.
  4. Use dedicated nonoperational decoy accounts instead of production service identities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A deliberately unused decoy credential being exercised can indicate adversary discovery. This directly addresses the requirement to investigate use of decoy credentials.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Blanket suppression would remove the value of the decoy detector. Its intended use is to preserve meaningful honeytoken coverage, whereas this case requires the analyst to investigate use of decoy credentials.

C:

Misconfiguration can cause decoy triggers but still requires evidence review. That action focuses on adjudicate unexpected honeytoken activity rather than the specified need to investigate use of decoy credentials.

D:

Decoys must not interfere with real business authentication. This addresses avoid disrupting real services with decoys; it does not directly satisfy investigate use of decoy credentials.

Question 382

A suspicious message was successfully blocked before delivery and responders need to prove who was affected. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Use the authorized email remediation workflow to remove or quarantine affected copies.
  2. Review delivery status and message trace across targeted recipients.
  3. Correct the investigation verdict and document the false-positive evidence.
  4. Inspect the message in Defender for Office 365 Explorer and review authentication and URL evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Delivery evidence differentiates attempts stopped upstream from content that reached users. This directly addresses the requirement to determine actual phishing recipient exposure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Tenant-wide email remediation limits further user exposure after confirming the message is malicious. This addresses remove confirmed malicious message copies; it does not directly satisfy determine actual phishing recipient exposure.

C:

A justified verdict correction avoids repeated inappropriate remediation of legitimate mail. That action focuses on reverse an incorrect phishing classification rather than the specified need to determine actual phishing recipient exposure.

D:

Message investigation correlates sender, delivery, URL and authentication signals before response. This addresses investigate a reported impersonation email; it does not directly satisfy determine actual phishing recipient exposure.

Question 383

Investigators must find documents containing a distinctive phrase across approved Microsoft 365 locations. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Use audit activity records rather than assuming content search reveals access history.
  2. Apply the authorized eDiscovery hold or preservation process to the relevant custodians.
  3. Create a scoped Purview eDiscovery content search using precise keywords and locations.
  4. Use the supported security remediation workflow and confirm legal preservation obligations first.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Content search locates potentially relevant stored data for review. This directly addresses the requirement to locate phrase-matching Microsoft 365 content.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Search results describe available content, while audit records describe supported user actions. This addresses distinguish content discovery from activity evidence; it does not directly satisfy locate phrase-matching Microsoft 365 content.

B:

Preservation prevents normal deletion from destroying in-scope evidence while the hold applies. Its intended use is to preserve email evidence for legal review, whereas this case requires the analyst to locate phrase-matching Microsoft 365 content.

D:

Security cleanup and legal discovery have distinct authority and preservation rules. This addresses coordinate email remediation with legal hold; it does not directly satisfy locate phrase-matching Microsoft 365 content.

Question 384

On-premises lateral-movement alerts disappeared after a domain controller was replaced. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Repair supported outbound connectivity and validate sensor communication.
  2. Verify sensor health before concluding there were no identity attacks.
  3. Assess supported monitoring requirements and onboard the controller where eligible.
  4. Check Defender for Identity sensor deployment and health on the replacement controller.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Identity detections require healthy collection from supported domain infrastructure. This directly addresses the requirement to restore identity sensor coverage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sensor collection depends on network paths to the identity detection service. This addresses resolve blocked identity sensor egress; it does not directly satisfy restore identity sensor coverage.

B:

Missing telemetry cannot be interpreted as clean security evidence. Its intended use is to distinguish sensor outage from benign quiet, whereas this case requires the analyst to restore identity sensor coverage.

C:

Identity detection blind spots remain when critical authentication infrastructure is excluded. That action focuses on close legacy controller monitoring gaps rather than the specified need to restore identity sensor coverage.

Question 385

The analyst revokes user sessions but attacker-issued OAuth consent remains active for an app. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Remove unauthorized application grants separately from user session revocation.
  2. Revoke the user sessions and investigate device compromise as appropriate.
  3. Review and correct the relevant Conditional Access policy scope and conditions.
  4. Review subsequent successful sign-ins and current user risk state.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Long-lived app permissions are distinct from a specific interactive session. This directly addresses the requirement to remove persistent malicious OAuth consent.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Session revocation limits continued access using issued authentication state. Its intended use is to contain a stolen browser session, whereas this case requires the analyst to remove persistent malicious OAuth consent.

C:

Authentication policy enforcement needs the right users, apps and device conditions. That action focuses on close conditional access gaps rather than the specified need to remove persistent malicious OAuth consent.

D:

Post-remediation telemetry confirms that access follows approved authentication controls. This addresses validate identity recovery after response; it does not directly satisfy remove persistent malicious OAuth consent.

Question 386

A legitimate user has completed identity remediation but still has an outdated open risky-user investigation. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Revoke valid sessions or tokens in addition to password rotation.
  2. Verify remediation evidence and close or dismiss the risk using the supported workflow.
  3. Require secure password reset and session revocation according to the response policy.
  4. Investigate the risk signal and legitimate access context before high-impact containment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Risk-case resolution should reflect verified account security state. This directly addresses the requirement to close a remediated identity risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Existing sessions can persist independently of password replacement until invalidated. This addresses eliminate stolen-session persistence; it does not directly satisfy close a remediated identity risk.

C:

Credential remediation reduces the value of stolen passwords and active sessions. That action focuses on remediate confirmed credential compromise rather than the specified need to close a remediated identity risk.

D:

Risk detections may be noisy and should be adjudicated proportionately. This addresses avoid unwarranted low-confidence user suspension; it does not directly satisfy close a remediated identity risk.

Question 387

A high-risk employee is found to have copied personal files for an authorized legal request. What is the most appropriate next action for the analyst?

  1. Follow Purview role and privacy restrictions rather than granting broad user activity access.
  2. Review the insider risk alert with approved investigator role and case context.
  3. Evaluate approval records and document the false positive before escalation.
  4. Correlate insider case activity with endpoint and identity security telemetry.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Contextual evidence prevents a benign business action being treated as malicious by default. This directly addresses the requirement to adjudicate insider risk false positives.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Insider investigations require designated roles and safeguards against unnecessary exposure. This addresses protect sensitive insider investigation information; it does not directly satisfy adjudicate insider risk false positives.

B:

Insider risk detections combine activity and contextual indicators subject to privacy controls. Its intended use is to investigate suspicious predeparture downloads, whereas this case requires the analyst to adjudicate insider risk false positives.

D:

Multi-source evidence strengthens attribution and impact assessment. This addresses correlate insider exfiltration signals; it does not directly satisfy adjudicate insider risk false positives.

Question 388

A SOC assumes every message will be removed by ZAP after one similar message is detected. Which response best meets the security operations requirement?

  1. Confirm Zero-hour auto purge actions and the post-delivery detection verdict.
  2. Review quarantine and post-delivery action evidence before restoring the benign message.
  3. Investigate click telemetry and identity compromise despite mailbox removal.
  4. Verify supported threat policies and actual recipient remediation status.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Post-delivery action coverage depends on policy and detection behavior. This directly addresses the requirement to avoid assuming universal post-delivery purging.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ZAP can take action on eligible malicious mail after initial delivery. This addresses verify post-delivery automatic email remediation; it does not directly satisfy avoid assuming universal post-delivery purging.

B:

Restoration requires a documented false-positive determination. Its intended use is to adjudicate a possibly false ZAP action, whereas this case requires the analyst to avoid assuming universal post-delivery purging.

C:

Post-delivery cleanup cannot undo interactions occurring before removal. That action focuses on assess residual exposure after ZAP rather than the specified need to avoid assuming universal post-delivery purging.

Question 389

A SOC interprets a quiet domain as secure even though a required identity sensor is offline. Which approach is best supported by the evidence?

  1. Verify sensor health before concluding there were no identity attacks.
  2. Assess supported monitoring requirements and onboard the controller where eligible.
  3. Repair supported outbound connectivity and validate sensor communication.
  4. Check Defender for Identity sensor deployment and health on the replacement controller.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Missing telemetry cannot be interpreted as clean security evidence. This directly addresses the requirement to distinguish sensor outage from benign quiet.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Identity detection blind spots remain when critical authentication infrastructure is excluded. Its intended use is to close legacy controller monitoring gaps, whereas this case requires the analyst to distinguish sensor outage from benign quiet.

C:

Sensor collection depends on network paths to the identity detection service. That action focuses on resolve blocked identity sensor egress rather than the specified need to distinguish sensor outage from benign quiet.

D:

Identity detections require healthy collection from supported domain infrastructure. This addresses restore identity sensor coverage; it does not directly satisfy distinguish sensor outage from benign quiet.

Question 390

A team wants to block all cloud sharing from any service after one policy violation. Which action most directly addresses the observed condition?

  1. Update the sanctioned-app classification and associated access or DLP controls.
  2. Scope restrictions to risky apps, data and users based on verified policy requirements.
  3. Review discovered cloud app use and sanction status, then enforce the approved control.
  4. Examine activity anomalies and compare with current job tasks before classifying exfiltration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Overbroad global blocks can disrupt legitimate collaboration without improving targeted detection. This directly addresses the requirement to right-size unsanctioned app response.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Governance classification should follow verified risk and policy decisions. This addresses update approved cloud app status; it does not directly satisfy right-size unsanctioned app response.

C:

Cloud app discovery and governance support risk-based handling of unsanctioned services. That action focuses on investigate shadow IT sensitive uploads rather than the specified need to right-size unsanctioned app response.

D:

Deviation-based signals need account context to judge intent and exposure. This addresses triage bulk cloud download anomalies; it does not directly satisfy right-size unsanctioned app response.


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