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MD-102 Training Course: 84 Video Lectures

MD-102 PDF Study Guide: 512 Pages

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Microsoft MD-102 Practice Test 52

Question 510

An endpoint generates a new ransomware alert and analysts must examine the investigation graph. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Review relevant Defender XDR incident and device investigation records.
  2. Diagnose device sensor health and service reachability.
  3. Include Defender device risk in Intune compliance and require a compliant device.
  4. Assign supported Intune EDR onboarding policy to the device cohort.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cross-signal correlation supports security investigation rather than policy deployment. It directly addresses incident-backed malware investigation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Endpoint protection depends on active communication, not only historic onboarding. Its role is verified current EDR connectivity; this case requires incident-backed malware investigation.

C:

Endpoint risk becomes an access-relevant compliance signal. That suits threat-informed sign-in restriction, whereas this device needs incident-backed malware investigation.

D:

Sensor onboarding establishes endpoint threat telemetry. The choice addresses managed EDR sensor deployment rather than incident-backed malware investigation.

Question 511

The organization needs to know which devices have not onboarded successfully to Defender for Endpoint. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Query appropriate Defender ASR audit and block telemetry.
  2. Review Defender EDR onboarding and sensor health status.
  3. Export per-setting security baseline deployment results.
  4. Use device encryption reports and enrolled fleet denominator.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Sensor health differentiates licensed policy assignment from active protection. It directly addresses device EDR coverage measurement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rule activity events quantify exploit prevention. Its role is attack surface reduction evidence; this case requires device EDR coverage measurement.

C:

Baseline status identifies configuration gaps by device and setting. That suits granular security baseline compliance, whereas this device needs device EDR coverage measurement.

D:

Encryption reports provide measurable protection coverage. It solves fleet disk-protection measurement; the actual goal is device EDR coverage measurement.

Question 512

An EDR device alert is believed false positive but the analyst lacks evidence. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Scope a reviewed ASR exception to the minimum permitted app path.
  2. Refuse broad exclusion and define least-necessary verified Defender exclusions.
  3. Investigate detection details before suppressing the indicator.
  4. Pilot and reconcile baseline settings using a documented exception policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Evidence-based alert review prevents premature removal of security signals. It directly addresses defensible EDR alert triage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Focused exclusions limit bypass scope while restoring business function. This is appropriate for narrow ASR compatibility exception, not the specified defensible EDR alert triage.

B:

Broad scan exclusions create avoidable malware blind spots. That suits constrained antivirus exception, whereas this device needs defensible EDR alert triage.

D:

Scoped baseline tuning preserves most hardening while fixing verified compatibility. It solves validated baseline deviation; the actual goal is defensible EDR alert triage.

Question 513

A signed supplier tool fails App Control because the signing certificate rotated. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Update the App Control policy to revoke the no-longer-required allow rule.
  2. Apply an App Control audit policy and inspect code integrity events.
  3. Deploy an approved enforced App Control for Business policy.
  4. Reassess the trusted signer and update reviewed code-integrity rules.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Application control may need updated allowed publisher identity. It directly addresses compliant supplier signer transition.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing stale exceptions reduces permitted attack surface. This is appropriate for revoked unused execution trust, not the specified compliant supplier signer transition.

B:

Audit mode measures untrusted execution without full blocking. The choice addresses application allowlist pilot evidence rather than compliant supplier signer transition.

C:

Enforcement prevents execution violating the trusted-code rules. It solves active executable allowlisting; the actual goal is compliant supplier signer transition.

Question 514

Defender reports a detected threat and an analyst wants to know whether it was quarantined or remediated. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Review antivirus threat history and response result.
  2. Inspect applied device antivirus profile groups and filters.
  3. Verify policy receipt and enforce supported tamper protection.
  4. Repair supported update source connectivity and recheck signature age.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Threat action records distinguish detection from successful cleanup. It directly addresses confirmed malware handling.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Intune policy targeting defines the actual platform and device population. The choice addresses attributable antivirus assignment scope rather than confirmed malware handling.

C:

Tamper protection resists unauthorized local security-setting changes. Its role is persistent managed malware protection; this case requires confirmed malware handling.

D:

Malware definition updates rely on reachable approved update infrastructure. This is appropriate for restored antivirus signature updates, not the specified confirmed malware handling.

Question 515

An engineer needs to rotate one BitLocker key but not perform device wipes. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Grant scoped Defender incident permissions to the authorized SOC team.
  2. Assign only the relevant scoped remote key action permissions.
  3. Revoke excessive Intune role assignments and grant permitted reporting rights.
  4. Use a suitable read-limited security administrative role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Granular management RBAC minimizes unrelated destructive power. It directly addresses key rotation without wipe rights.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security incident operations can be delegated without broad tenant administrator rights. The choice addresses bounded EDR investigation authority rather than key rotation without wipe rights.

C:

Removing broad policy privileges aligns access with assigned duty. Its role is least-privilege security contractor; this case requires key rotation without wipe rights.

D:

Least-privilege role separation prevents unauthorized device hardening changes. That suits observation-only security review, whereas this device needs key rotation without wipe rights.

Question 516

A newly purchased laptop has an active Defender sensor but no disk encryption. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Check onboarding policy applicability and endpoint sensor registration.
  2. Validate Defender service URLs and proxy connectivity for that branch.
  3. Deploy and verify BitLocker configuration independently of EDR status.
  4. Investigate underlying EDR alerts and remediation rather than relying on signature freshness.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Threat detection does not automatically encrypt local disks. It directly addresses separate device data-at-rest protection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Effective EDR onboarding requires both policy and active sensor attachment. It solves active Defender device inventory; the actual goal is separate device data-at-rest protection.

B:

Sensor telemetry requires reachability to configured security cloud services. Its role is branch EDR connectivity restoration; this case requires separate device data-at-rest protection.

D:

Risk may reflect behavior and incident evidence beyond malware definitions. That suits resolved endpoint risk evidence, whereas this device needs separate device data-at-rest protection.

Question 517

A laptop is on an untrusted public network and must expose fewer services than on corporate LAN. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Enable applicable Defender Firewall logging and review blocked outbound events.
  2. Review local-rule merge and effective Windows Defender Firewall policy.
  3. Configure a scoped inbound firewall rule with port and remote-address limits.
  4. Harden the Public firewall profile separately from Domain profile.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Network profiles change the effective firewall rules based on network trust. It directly addresses reduced public-network exposure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Filtered-traffic logs make deny enforcement observable. It solves auditable outbound policy effect; the actual goal is reduced public-network exposure.

B:

Effective behavior depends on merged policy and local rule precedence. This is appropriate for enforced enterprise RDP restriction, not the specified reduced public-network exposure.

C:

Address and port constraints permit narrowly authorized service traffic. That suits subnet-limited service connectivity, whereas this device needs reduced public-network exposure.

Question 518

A detected malware sample remains in quarantine pending review and business owner requests release. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Investigate file trust and use approved Defender quarantine disposition.
  2. Apply an appropriate ASR hardening rule through Intune.
  3. Use an authorized Defender for Endpoint device isolation response.
  4. Rotate the recovery protector after controlled recovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Quarantine restoration requires security validation to avoid reactivating malware. It directly addresses defensible false-positive recovery.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Preventive behavior controls address repeated exploit techniques. This is appropriate for fleet-scale Office exploit mitigation, not the specified defensible false-positive recovery.

C:

Isolation limits endpoint communication while preserving incident response channels. The choice addresses urgent endpoint network containment rather than defensible false-positive recovery.

D:

Recovery-key rotation invalidates credentials that were exposed. It solves replacement of used recovery key; the actual goal is defensible false-positive recovery.

Question 519

A malware infection is suspected after a user opens a malicious file and analysts need incident evidence. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Investigate the device through Microsoft Defender for Endpoint threat telemetry.
  2. Assign a Microsoft Defender Antivirus policy enabling required real-time protection.
  3. Create a scoped Defender Antivirus exclusion for the reviewed path.
  4. Trigger and monitor security intelligence updates for affected devices.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

EDR investigation captures behavioral alerts beyond simple antivirus configuration. It directly addresses investigated suspected endpoint compromise.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Antivirus profiles configure endpoint malware prevention controls. Its role is centrally enforced real-time scanning; this case requires investigated suspected endpoint compromise.

C:

Path exclusions change scanning scope and must be constrained to necessary locations. This is appropriate for minimal authorized scan exclusion, not the specified investigated suspected endpoint compromise.

D:

Updated signatures give the antivirus engine current detection information. That suits current antivirus intelligence, whereas this device needs investigated suspected endpoint compromise.

Question 520

Security needs a report identifying endpoints without active disk encryption. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Rotate the BitLocker recovery key using an approved supported action.
  2. Review Intune disk-encryption policy status and device encryption reports.
  3. Deploy supported Intune BitLocker disk-encryption policy.
  4. Verify BitLocker recovery-key escrow and directory backup settings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Encryption reporting measures device protection and deployment failures. It directly addresses verified fleet encryption state.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rotation replaces an exposed recovery protector without disabling encryption. It solves invalidation of exposed recovery secret; the actual goal is verified fleet encryption state.

C:

Disk-encryption settings configure BitLocker protection on supported devices. That suits encrypted corporate system drives, whereas this device needs verified fleet encryption state.

D:

Recovery procedures depend on a securely stored, eligible protector. The choice addresses recoverable encryption credentials rather than verified fleet encryption state.


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