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MD-102 Premium File: 452 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 05, 2026

MD-102 Training Course: 84 Video Lectures

MD-102 PDF Study Guide: 512 Pages

$79.99

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Microsoft MD-102 Practice Test 50

Question 490

A vendor asks IT to exclude its entire installation drive from antivirus scanning. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Scope a reviewed ASR exception to the minimum permitted app path.
  2. Refuse broad exclusion and define least-necessary verified Defender exclusions.
  3. Investigate detection details before suppressing the indicator.
  4. Pilot and reconcile baseline settings using a documented exception policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Broad scan exclusions create avoidable malware blind spots. It directly addresses constrained antivirus exception.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Focused exclusions limit bypass scope while restoring business function. That suits narrow ASR compatibility exception, whereas this device needs constrained antivirus exception.

C:

Evidence-based alert review prevents premature removal of security signals. It solves defensible EDR alert triage; the actual goal is constrained antivirus exception.

D:

Scoped baseline tuning preserves most hardening while fixing verified compatibility. Its role is validated baseline deviation; this case requires constrained antivirus exception.

Question 491

After a successful pilot, production devices must reject untrusted binaries. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Update the App Control policy to revoke the no-longer-required allow rule.
  2. Apply an App Control audit policy and inspect code integrity events.
  3. Deploy an approved enforced App Control for Business policy.
  4. Reassess the trusted signer and update reviewed code-integrity rules.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Enforcement prevents execution violating the trusted-code rules. It directly addresses active executable allowlisting.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing stale exceptions reduces permitted attack surface. That suits revoked unused execution trust, whereas this device needs active executable allowlisting.

B:

Audit mode measures untrusted execution without full blocking. It solves application allowlist pilot evidence; the actual goal is active executable allowlisting.

D:

Application control may need updated allowed publisher identity. This is appropriate for compliant supplier signer transition, not the specified active executable allowlisting.

Question 492

A signature update job is failing because clients cannot reach their configured update source. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Review antivirus threat history and response result.
  2. Inspect applied device antivirus profile groups and filters.
  3. Verify policy receipt and enforce supported tamper protection.
  4. Repair supported update source connectivity and recheck signature age.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Malware definition updates rely on reachable approved update infrastructure. It directly addresses restored antivirus signature updates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Threat action records distinguish detection from successful cleanup. The choice addresses confirmed malware handling rather than restored antivirus signature updates.

B:

Intune policy targeting defines the actual platform and device population. It solves attributable antivirus assignment scope; the actual goal is restored antivirus signature updates.

C:

Tamper protection resists unauthorized local security-setting changes. This is appropriate for persistent managed malware protection, not the specified restored antivirus signature updates.

Question 493

A Defender incident investigation requires appropriate security operations roles rather than Intune global admin. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Grant scoped Defender incident permissions to the authorized SOC team.
  2. Assign only the relevant scoped remote key action permissions.
  3. Revoke excessive Intune role assignments and grant permitted reporting rights.
  4. Use a suitable read-limited security administrative role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Security incident operations can be delegated without broad tenant administrator rights. It directly addresses bounded EDR investigation authority.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Granular management RBAC minimizes unrelated destructive power. Its role is key rotation without wipe rights; this case requires bounded EDR investigation authority.

C:

Removing broad policy privileges aligns access with assigned duty. This is appropriate for least-privilege security contractor, not the specified bounded EDR investigation authority.

D:

Least-privilege role separation prevents unauthorized device hardening changes. The choice addresses observation-only security review rather than bounded EDR investigation authority.

Question 494

Only one branch's endpoints stop reporting Defender status after a proxy change. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Check onboarding policy applicability and endpoint sensor registration.
  2. Validate Defender service URLs and proxy connectivity for that branch.
  3. Deploy and verify BitLocker configuration independently of EDR status.
  4. Investigate underlying EDR alerts and remediation rather than relying on signature freshness.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Sensor telemetry requires reachability to configured security cloud services. It directly addresses branch EDR connectivity restoration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Effective EDR onboarding requires both policy and active sensor attachment. Its role is active Defender device inventory; this case requires branch EDR connectivity restoration.

C:

Threat detection does not automatically encrypt local disks. That suits separate device data-at-rest protection, whereas this device needs branch EDR connectivity restoration.

D:

Risk may reflect behavior and incident evidence beyond malware definitions. The choice addresses resolved endpoint risk evidence rather than branch EDR connectivity restoration.

Question 495

A management service uses TCP 8443 only from a specified private admin subnet. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Enable applicable Defender Firewall logging and review blocked outbound events.
  2. Review local-rule merge and effective Windows Defender Firewall policy.
  3. Configure a scoped inbound firewall rule with port and remote-address limits.
  4. Harden the Public firewall profile separately from Domain profile.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Address and port constraints permit narrowly authorized service traffic. It directly addresses subnet-limited service connectivity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Filtered-traffic logs make deny enforcement observable. Its role is auditable outbound policy effect; this case requires subnet-limited service connectivity.

B:

Effective behavior depends on merged policy and local rule precedence. That suits enforced enterprise RDP restriction, whereas this device needs subnet-limited service connectivity.

D:

Network profiles change the effective firewall rules based on network trust. It solves reduced public-network exposure; the actual goal is subnet-limited service connectivity.

Question 496

A technician just accessed a sensitive device's BitLocker recovery secret. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Investigate file trust and use approved Defender quarantine disposition.
  2. Apply an appropriate ASR hardening rule through Intune.
  3. Use an authorized Defender for Endpoint device isolation response.
  4. Rotate the recovery protector after controlled recovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Recovery-key rotation invalidates credentials that were exposed. It directly addresses replacement of used recovery key.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Quarantine restoration requires security validation to avoid reactivating malware. This is appropriate for defensible false-positive recovery, not the specified replacement of used recovery key.

B:

Preventive behavior controls address repeated exploit techniques. That suits fleet-scale Office exploit mitigation, whereas this device needs replacement of used recovery key.

C:

Isolation limits endpoint communication while preserving incident response channels. It solves urgent endpoint network containment; the actual goal is replacement of used recovery key.

Question 497

Defender security intelligence versions are outdated on some managed laptops. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Investigate the device through Microsoft Defender for Endpoint threat telemetry.
  2. Assign a Microsoft Defender Antivirus policy enabling required real-time protection.
  3. Create a scoped Defender Antivirus exclusion for the reviewed path.
  4. Trigger and monitor security intelligence updates for affected devices.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Updated signatures give the antivirus engine current detection information. It directly addresses current antivirus intelligence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

EDR investigation captures behavioral alerts beyond simple antivirus configuration. It solves investigated suspected endpoint compromise; the actual goal is current antivirus intelligence.

B:

Antivirus profiles configure endpoint malware prevention controls. This is appropriate for centrally enforced real-time scanning, not the specified current antivirus intelligence.

C:

Path exclusions change scanning scope and must be constrained to necessary locations. That suits minimal authorized scan exclusion, whereas this device needs current antivirus intelligence.

Question 498

A BitLocker recovery key appeared in an unsecured support ticket and must no longer unlock the device. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Rotate the BitLocker recovery key using an approved supported action.
  2. Review Intune disk-encryption policy status and device encryption reports.
  3. Deploy supported Intune BitLocker disk-encryption policy.
  4. Verify BitLocker recovery-key escrow and directory backup settings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Rotation replaces an exposed recovery protector without disabling encryption. It directly addresses invalidation of exposed recovery secret.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Encryption reporting measures device protection and deployment failures. This is appropriate for verified fleet encryption state, not the specified invalidation of exposed recovery secret.

C:

Disk-encryption settings configure BitLocker protection on supported devices. The choice addresses encrypted corporate system drives rather than invalidation of exposed recovery secret.

D:

Recovery procedures depend on a securely stored, eligible protector. It solves recoverable encryption credentials; the actual goal is invalidation of exposed recovery secret.

Question 499

Security staff need to diagnose a firewall policy that blocks a business app unexpectedly. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Add a scoped Defender Firewall rule for the required protocol and endpoint.
  2. Review per-rule firewall event evidence and effective policy on the device.
  3. Configure relevant Domain, Private and Public firewall profiles.
  4. Configure Microsoft Defender Firewall profiles and inbound allow rules through Intune.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Effective firewall rules and events identify blocked traffic and conflicting settings. It directly addresses explained application connection block.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Explicit rules permit necessary management traffic without opening broad ranges. This is appropriate for controlled remote management port, not the specified explained application connection block.

C:

Profile-aware rules adapt endpoint network filtering to the detected network category. The choice addresses risk-aware per-network firewall behavior rather than explained application connection block.

D:

Stateful firewall policy can default-deny unapproved inbound traffic. Its role is restricted inbound network exposure; this case requires explained application connection block.

Question 500

A known safe document automation is blocked after ASR enforcement and has approved business justification. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Configure the supported Defender ASR rule blocking Office child-process creation.
  2. Deploy the relevant ASR rule in Audit mode during the pilot.
  3. Create a narrowly scoped reviewed ASR exclusion where supported.
  4. Inspect Defender ASR events and rule identifiers for the device.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Controlled exclusions preserve protection while accommodating verified exceptions. It directly addresses defensible ASR exception.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ASR rules constrain common exploit behaviors at process boundaries. That suits reduced Office malware execution, whereas this device needs defensible ASR exception.

B:

Audit mode records predicted blocks without applying all enforcement consequences. The choice addresses measured ASR rule impact rather than defensible ASR exception.

D:

ASR telemetry associates enforcement with the exact configured mitigation. Its role is attributable attack-surface enforcement; this case requires defensible ASR exception.


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