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Last Update: Oct 05, 2026

MD-102 Training Course: 84 Video Lectures

MD-102 PDF Study Guide: 512 Pages

$79.99

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Microsoft MD-102 Practice Test 51

Question 500

A known safe document automation is blocked after ASR enforcement and has approved business justification. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Configure the supported Defender ASR rule blocking Office child-process creation.
  2. Deploy the relevant ASR rule in Audit mode during the pilot.
  3. Create a narrowly scoped reviewed ASR exclusion where supported.
  4. Inspect Defender ASR events and rule identifiers for the device.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Controlled exclusions preserve protection while accommodating verified exceptions. It directly addresses defensible ASR exception.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ASR rules constrain common exploit behaviors at process boundaries. That suits reduced Office malware execution, whereas this device needs defensible ASR exception.

B:

Audit mode records predicted blocks without applying all enforcement consequences. The choice addresses measured ASR rule impact rather than defensible ASR exception.

D:

ASR telemetry associates enforcement with the exact configured mitigation. Its role is attributable attack-surface enforcement; this case requires defensible ASR exception.

Question 501

A baseline is updated to a newer supported version and IT wants to assess the changed settings before production. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Inspect per-setting baseline deployment status for failed or conflicting configurations.
  2. Assign an Intune Windows security baseline for the supported platform.
  3. Compare overlapping values and consolidate policy ownership.
  4. Review baseline version changes and test them on a pilot cohort.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Baseline revisions can alter effective hardening behavior. It directly addresses controlled baseline version adoption.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Item-level status pinpoints individual hardening settings that did not apply. That suits diagnosed baseline compliance gap, whereas this device needs controlled baseline version adoption.

B:

Baselines deliver a curated starting set of security configurations. It solves standardized secure endpoint configuration; the actual goal is controlled baseline version adoption.

C:

Multiple policies can set the same endpoint control inconsistently. Its role is resolved baseline setting conflict; this case requires controlled baseline version adoption.

Question 502

A security analyst needs to investigate high-severity Defender XDR incident evidence from one enrolled endpoint. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Open the Defender investigation and incident timeline for that device.
  2. Check onboarding configuration and device sensor connectivity diagnostics.
  3. Configure supported Defender for Endpoint onboarding through Intune EDR policy.
  4. Integrate Intune with Defender for Endpoint device risk signals.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

EDR incident detail correlates process, alert and behavioral evidence. It directly addresses full suspicious-device investigation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Successful policy assignment does not prove active EDR sensor communication. It solves working Defender endpoint sensor; the actual goal is full suspicious-device investigation.

C:

EDR onboarding establishes device reporting to Microsoft Defender security services. This is appropriate for onboarded endpoint detection telemetry, not the specified full suspicious-device investigation.

D:

Machine risk integration feeds endpoint detection health into compliance evaluation. That suits EDR risk-based device access, whereas this device needs full suspicious-device investigation.

Question 503

A business program was blocked after application-control deployment because its signed publisher changed. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Start with supported audit-mode application control policy.
  2. Update the reviewed application control signing or file rules for the trusted version.
  3. Inspect App Control for Business audit or enforcement events.
  4. Deploy an applicable App Control for Business policy through Intune.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Trust policies must match the actual approved file identity. It directly addresses validated program execution exception.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Audit events reveal what code would be denied before enforcement. It solves measured application-control impact; the actual goal is validated program execution exception.

C:

Code-integrity events identify the blocked or audited application identity. This is appropriate for executable-policy event evidence, not the specified validated program execution exception.

D:

Application control enforces trusted code execution rules at the platform boundary. The choice addresses allowlisted executable trust rather than validated program execution exception.

Question 504

Corporate laptops must maintain antivirus protection even when staff try to disable local settings. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Enable supported Defender Antivirus cloud-delivered protection.
  2. Configure appropriate sample-submission preferences with privacy review.
  3. Enable supported tamper protection and managed antivirus controls.
  4. Inspect Defender Antivirus configuration and health status reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Tamper protection limits unauthorized changes to Defender security settings. It directly addresses protected endpoint anti-malware settings.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cloud protection supplies reputation and analysis beyond local signatures. Its role is rapid emerging-threat detection; this case requires protected endpoint anti-malware settings.

B:

Sample policies govern which candidate binaries may be uploaded for classification. This is appropriate for controlled malware sample submission, not the specified protected endpoint anti-malware settings.

D:

Security posture reports distinguish configured settings from successful effective state. The choice addresses verified cloud protection deployment rather than protected endpoint anti-malware settings.

Question 505

A malicious executable is identified across many endpoints and the team wants targeted response evidence. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Use the documented Defender review and safe restore procedure.
  2. Review correlated Defender for Endpoint alerts and device timeline.
  3. Use the authorized Defender device isolation response where supported.
  4. Investigate the file indicator and affected devices in Defender XDR.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Indicator and device telemetry connects a file with the affected fleet. It directly addresses scoped malware exposure analysis.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Controlled restoration avoids undoing malware controls without verification. Its role is legitimate-file quarantine recovery; this case requires scoped malware exposure analysis.

B:

EDR activity telemetry relates processes and detections into an investigation. That suits analyzed suspicious PowerShell chain, whereas this device needs scoped malware exposure analysis.

C:

Device isolation limits lateral communication during incident containment. The choice addresses isolated compromised endpoint rather than scoped malware exposure analysis.

Question 506

A high-risk server-like endpoint has a stricter Defender attack-surface policy than general desktops. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Create scoped endpoint security configuration for the high-risk cohort.
  2. Resolve the overlapping policy conflict and choose authoritative values.
  3. Assign a Windows antivirus policy with appropriate groups and filters.
  4. Trigger a device sync and inspect per-setting deployment state.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Risk-segmented security policy supports different hardening requirements. It directly addresses specialized high-risk hardening.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Conflicting controls can produce unpredictable or failed effective security settings. That suits consistent antivirus enforcement, whereas this device needs specialized high-risk hardening.

C:

Policy scope avoids imposing unwanted controls on specialized hardware. It solves laptop-only antivirus assignment; the actual goal is specialized high-risk hardening.

D:

Management check-in is needed to report effective firewall configuration. Its role is refreshed firewall policy state; this case requires specialized high-risk hardening.

Question 507

New Windows laptops should escrow BitLocker recovery information before users depend on encrypted storage. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Rotate the exposed recovery key once the device is safely accessible.
  2. Configure compliant encryption policy with supported Entra recovery-key backup.
  3. Check Intune encryption status and escrow evidence for each endpoint.
  4. Retrieve the recovery key through a scoped authorized management role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Secure escrow supports legitimate recovery of otherwise protected drives. It directly addresses recoverable first-time encryption rollout.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rotation limits future use of a compromised recovery protector. That suits replaced compromised disk recovery secret, whereas this device needs recoverable first-time encryption rollout.

C:

Device-level reporting distinguishes configuration assignment from actual protection. It solves auditable encryption compliance; the actual goal is recoverable first-time encryption rollout.

D:

Recovery-key retrieval must be audited and limited to approved support. This is appropriate for privileged protected BitLocker recovery, not the specified recoverable first-time encryption rollout.

Question 508

A firewall rule works on corporate LAN but fails when the laptop switches network category. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Use a restrictive Public firewall profile with explicit allowed service rules.
  2. Create a narrow outbound firewall rule to the approved destination.
  3. Verify active firewall profile and adjust valid rules for that network category.
  4. Enable supported firewall logging and inspect blocked connection events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Firewall rule behavior is conditional on the effective network profile. It directly addresses diagnosed network-profile mismatch.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Profile-specific firewall configuration limits exposure outside trusted networks. The choice addresses protected public-network connections rather than diagnosed network-profile mismatch.

B:

Port/address restrictions permit necessary traffic without broad network access. It solves destination-specific application traffic; the actual goal is diagnosed network-profile mismatch.

D:

Firewall logs provide observable deny behavior without weakening enforcement. This is appropriate for measured inbound block evidence, not the specified diagnosed network-profile mismatch.

Question 509

A suspected malicious binary has already executed and analysts need evidence of its activity. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Deploy an appropriate Intune endpoint security baseline.
  2. Enable the appropriate Defender attack surface reduction mitigation.
  3. Enforce an approved App Control for Business trust policy.
  4. Investigate the endpoint in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

EDR records process and incident telemetry after suspicious execution. It directly addresses post-execution threat analysis.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Baselines provide a coordinated collection of documented security configurations. The choice addresses broad coordinated Windows hardening rather than post-execution threat analysis.

B:

ASR prevents risky process behaviors used in common exploit chains. Its role is blocked document-spawn exploit; this case requires post-execution threat analysis.

C:

Code integrity allowlisting controls executable trust rather than just one exploit behavior. This is appropriate for general approved-code execution, not the specified post-execution threat analysis.

Question 510

An endpoint generates a new ransomware alert and analysts must examine the investigation graph. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Review relevant Defender XDR incident and device investigation records.
  2. Diagnose device sensor health and service reachability.
  3. Include Defender device risk in Intune compliance and require a compliant device.
  4. Assign supported Intune EDR onboarding policy to the device cohort.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cross-signal correlation supports security investigation rather than policy deployment. It directly addresses incident-backed malware investigation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Endpoint protection depends on active communication, not only historic onboarding. Its role is verified current EDR connectivity; this case requires incident-backed malware investigation.

C:

Endpoint risk becomes an access-relevant compliance signal. That suits threat-informed sign-in restriction, whereas this device needs incident-backed malware investigation.

D:

Sensor onboarding establishes endpoint threat telemetry. The choice addresses managed EDR sensor deployment rather than incident-backed malware investigation.


Endpoint Administrator (MD-102) Practice Tests

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