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MD-102 Training Course: 84 Video Lectures

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Microsoft MD-102 Practice Test 53

Question 520

Security needs a report identifying endpoints without active disk encryption. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Rotate the BitLocker recovery key using an approved supported action.
  2. Review Intune disk-encryption policy status and device encryption reports.
  3. Deploy supported Intune BitLocker disk-encryption policy.
  4. Verify BitLocker recovery-key escrow and directory backup settings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Encryption reporting measures device protection and deployment failures. It directly addresses verified fleet encryption state.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rotation replaces an exposed recovery protector without disabling encryption. It solves invalidation of exposed recovery secret; the actual goal is verified fleet encryption state.

C:

Disk-encryption settings configure BitLocker protection on supported devices. That suits encrypted corporate system drives, whereas this device needs verified fleet encryption state.

D:

Recovery procedures depend on a securely stored, eligible protector. The choice addresses recoverable encryption credentials rather than verified fleet encryption state.

Question 521

A laptop moves from a trusted corporate LAN to a public café, and firewall behavior should reflect different risk. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Add a scoped Defender Firewall rule for the required protocol and endpoint.
  2. Review per-rule firewall event evidence and effective policy on the device.
  3. Configure relevant Domain, Private and Public firewall profiles.
  4. Configure Microsoft Defender Firewall profiles and inbound allow rules through Intune.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Profile-aware rules adapt endpoint network filtering to the detected network category. It directly addresses risk-aware per-network firewall behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Explicit rules permit necessary management traffic without opening broad ranges. Its role is controlled remote management port; this case requires risk-aware per-network firewall behavior.

B:

Effective firewall rules and events identify blocked traffic and conflicting settings. This is appropriate for explained application connection block, not the specified risk-aware per-network firewall behavior.

D:

Stateful firewall policy can default-deny unapproved inbound traffic. It solves restricted inbound network exposure; the actual goal is risk-aware per-network firewall behavior.

Question 522

Security wants to verify which ASR rule blocked an exploit-like attempt on one device. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Configure the supported Defender ASR rule blocking Office child-process creation.
  2. Deploy the relevant ASR rule in Audit mode during the pilot.
  3. Create a narrowly scoped reviewed ASR exclusion where supported.
  4. Inspect Defender ASR events and rule identifiers for the device.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

ASR telemetry associates enforcement with the exact configured mitigation. It directly addresses attributable attack-surface enforcement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ASR rules constrain common exploit behaviors at process boundaries. This is appropriate for reduced Office malware execution, not the specified attributable attack-surface enforcement.

B:

Audit mode records predicted blocks without applying all enforcement consequences. That suits measured ASR rule impact, whereas this device needs attributable attack-surface enforcement.

C:

Controlled exclusions preserve protection while accommodating verified exceptions. The choice addresses defensible ASR exception rather than attributable attack-surface enforcement.

Question 523

Security needs to know why a device does not match an assigned baseline. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Inspect per-setting baseline deployment status for failed or conflicting configurations.
  2. Assign an Intune Windows security baseline for the supported platform.
  3. Compare overlapping values and consolidate policy ownership.
  4. Review baseline version changes and test them on a pilot cohort.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Item-level status pinpoints individual hardening settings that did not apply. It directly addresses diagnosed baseline compliance gap.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Baselines deliver a curated starting set of security configurations. The choice addresses standardized secure endpoint configuration rather than diagnosed baseline compliance gap.

C:

Multiple policies can set the same endpoint control inconsistently. It solves resolved baseline setting conflict; the actual goal is diagnosed baseline compliance gap.

D:

Baseline revisions can alter effective hardening behavior. Its role is controlled baseline version adoption; this case requires diagnosed baseline compliance gap.

Question 524

EDR policy is assigned but one device still does not report sensors after several check-ins. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Open the Defender investigation and incident timeline for that device.
  2. Check onboarding configuration and device sensor connectivity diagnostics.
  3. Configure supported Defender for Endpoint onboarding through Intune EDR policy.
  4. Integrate Intune with Defender for Endpoint device risk signals.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Successful policy assignment does not prove active EDR sensor communication. It directly addresses working Defender endpoint sensor.

Incorrect Answers

A:

EDR incident detail correlates process, alert and behavioral evidence. That suits full suspicious-device investigation, whereas this device needs working Defender endpoint sensor.

C:

EDR onboarding establishes device reporting to Microsoft Defender security services. Its role is onboarded endpoint detection telemetry; this case requires working Defender endpoint sensor.

D:

Machine risk integration feeds endpoint detection health into compliance evaluation. This is appropriate for EDR risk-based device access, not the specified working Defender endpoint sensor.

Question 525

Security wants evidence of which executable would violate application trust during pilot. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Start with supported audit-mode application control policy.
  2. Update the reviewed application control signing or file rules for the trusted version.
  3. Inspect App Control for Business audit or enforcement events.
  4. Deploy an applicable App Control for Business policy through Intune.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Code-integrity events identify the blocked or audited application identity. It directly addresses executable-policy event evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Audit events reveal what code would be denied before enforcement. The choice addresses measured application-control impact rather than executable-policy event evidence.

B:

Trust policies must match the actual approved file identity. It solves validated program execution exception; the actual goal is executable-policy event evidence.

D:

Application control enforces trusted code execution rules at the platform boundary. That suits allowlisted executable trust, whereas this device needs executable-policy event evidence.

Question 526

Analysts need to see whether a cloud protection policy is actually enabled across the fleet. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Enable supported Defender Antivirus cloud-delivered protection.
  2. Configure appropriate sample-submission preferences with privacy review.
  3. Enable supported tamper protection and managed antivirus controls.
  4. Inspect Defender Antivirus configuration and health status reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Security posture reports distinguish configured settings from successful effective state. It directly addresses verified cloud protection deployment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cloud protection supplies reputation and analysis beyond local signatures. It solves rapid emerging-threat detection; the actual goal is verified cloud protection deployment.

B:

Sample policies govern which candidate binaries may be uploaded for classification. Its role is controlled malware sample submission; this case requires verified cloud protection deployment.

C:

Tamper protection limits unauthorized changes to Defender security settings. This is appropriate for protected endpoint anti-malware settings, not the specified verified cloud protection deployment.

Question 527

Helpdesk needs to restore a falsely quarantined approved business file after security approval. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Use the documented Defender review and safe restore procedure.
  2. Review correlated Defender for Endpoint alerts and device timeline.
  3. Use the authorized Defender device isolation response where supported.
  4. Investigate the file indicator and affected devices in Defender XDR.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Controlled restoration avoids undoing malware controls without verification. It directly addresses legitimate-file quarantine recovery.

Incorrect Answers

B:

EDR activity telemetry relates processes and detections into an investigation. This is appropriate for analyzed suspicious PowerShell chain, not the specified legitimate-file quarantine recovery.

C:

Device isolation limits lateral communication during incident containment. That suits isolated compromised endpoint, whereas this device needs legitimate-file quarantine recovery.

D:

Indicator and device telemetry connects a file with the affected fleet. The choice addresses scoped malware exposure analysis rather than legitimate-file quarantine recovery.

Question 528

Two Intune security profiles define opposing antivirus cloud-protection settings. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Create scoped endpoint security configuration for the high-risk cohort.
  2. Resolve the overlapping policy conflict and choose authoritative values.
  3. Assign a Windows antivirus policy with appropriate groups and filters.
  4. Trigger a device sync and inspect per-setting deployment state.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Conflicting controls can produce unpredictable or failed effective security settings. It directly addresses consistent antivirus enforcement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Risk-segmented security policy supports different hardening requirements. Its role is specialized high-risk hardening; this case requires consistent antivirus enforcement.

C:

Policy scope avoids imposing unwanted controls on specialized hardware. The choice addresses laptop-only antivirus assignment rather than consistent antivirus enforcement.

D:

Management check-in is needed to report effective firewall configuration. It solves refreshed firewall policy state; the actual goal is consistent antivirus enforcement.

Question 529

IT requires proof that all owned devices are encrypted and their keys backed up before passing an audit. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Rotate the exposed recovery key once the device is safely accessible.
  2. Configure compliant encryption policy with supported Entra recovery-key backup.
  3. Check Intune encryption status and escrow evidence for each endpoint.
  4. Retrieve the recovery key through a scoped authorized management role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Device-level reporting distinguishes configuration assignment from actual protection. It directly addresses auditable encryption compliance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rotation limits future use of a compromised recovery protector. This is appropriate for replaced compromised disk recovery secret, not the specified auditable encryption compliance.

B:

Secure escrow supports legitimate recovery of otherwise protected drives. That suits recoverable first-time encryption rollout, whereas this device needs auditable encryption compliance.

D:

Recovery-key retrieval must be audited and limited to approved support. Its role is privileged protected BitLocker recovery; this case requires auditable encryption compliance.

Question 530

Operations wants evidence of rejected inbound attempts without disabling the firewall to test them. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Use a restrictive Public firewall profile with explicit allowed service rules.
  2. Create a narrow outbound firewall rule to the approved destination.
  3. Verify active firewall profile and adjust valid rules for that network category.
  4. Enable supported firewall logging and inspect blocked connection events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Firewall logs provide observable deny behavior without weakening enforcement. It directly addresses measured inbound block evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Profile-specific firewall configuration limits exposure outside trusted networks. That suits protected public-network connections, whereas this device needs measured inbound block evidence.

B:

Port/address restrictions permit necessary traffic without broad network access. The choice addresses destination-specific application traffic rather than measured inbound block evidence.

C:

Firewall rule behavior is conditional on the effective network profile. It solves diagnosed network-profile mismatch; the actual goal is measured inbound block evidence.


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