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Last Update: Oct 05, 2026

MD-102 Training Course: 84 Video Lectures

MD-102 PDF Study Guide: 512 Pages

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Microsoft MD-102 Practice Test 54

Question 530

Operations wants evidence of rejected inbound attempts without disabling the firewall to test them. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Use a restrictive Public firewall profile with explicit allowed service rules.
  2. Create a narrow outbound firewall rule to the approved destination.
  3. Verify active firewall profile and adjust valid rules for that network category.
  4. Enable supported firewall logging and inspect blocked connection events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Firewall logs provide observable deny behavior without weakening enforcement. It directly addresses measured inbound block evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Profile-specific firewall configuration limits exposure outside trusted networks. That suits protected public-network connections, whereas this device needs measured inbound block evidence.

B:

Port/address restrictions permit necessary traffic without broad network access. The choice addresses destination-specific application traffic rather than measured inbound block evidence.

C:

Firewall rule behavior is conditional on the effective network profile. It solves diagnosed network-profile mismatch; the actual goal is measured inbound block evidence.

Question 531

Security wants a tested hardening baseline across Windows clients with many protective settings. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Deploy an appropriate Intune endpoint security baseline.
  2. Enable the appropriate Defender attack surface reduction mitigation.
  3. Enforce an approved App Control for Business trust policy.
  4. Investigate the endpoint in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Baselines provide a coordinated collection of documented security configurations. It directly addresses broad coordinated Windows hardening.

Incorrect Answers

B:

ASR prevents risky process behaviors used in common exploit chains. It solves blocked document-spawn exploit; the actual goal is broad coordinated Windows hardening.

C:

Code integrity allowlisting controls executable trust rather than just one exploit behavior. Its role is general approved-code execution; this case requires broad coordinated Windows hardening.

D:

EDR records process and incident telemetry after suspicious execution. This is appropriate for post-execution threat analysis, not the specified broad coordinated Windows hardening.

Question 532

An endpoint has a Defender sensor but no recent check-in and may be off the network. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Review relevant Defender XDR incident and device investigation records.
  2. Diagnose device sensor health and service reachability.
  3. Include Defender device risk in Intune compliance and require a compliant device.
  4. Assign supported Intune EDR onboarding policy to the device cohort.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Endpoint protection depends on active communication, not only historic onboarding. It directly addresses verified current EDR connectivity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cross-signal correlation supports security investigation rather than policy deployment. The choice addresses incident-backed malware investigation rather than verified current EDR connectivity.

C:

Endpoint risk becomes an access-relevant compliance signal. This is appropriate for threat-informed sign-in restriction, not the specified verified current EDR connectivity.

D:

Sensor onboarding establishes endpoint threat telemetry. That suits managed EDR sensor deployment, whereas this device needs verified current EDR connectivity.

Question 533

An audit seeks which Windows security baseline settings have failed to deploy. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Query appropriate Defender ASR audit and block telemetry.
  2. Review Defender EDR onboarding and sensor health status.
  3. Export per-setting security baseline deployment results.
  4. Use device encryption reports and enrolled fleet denominator.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Baseline status identifies configuration gaps by device and setting. It directly addresses granular security baseline compliance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rule activity events quantify exploit prevention. It solves attack surface reduction evidence; the actual goal is granular security baseline compliance.

B:

Sensor health differentiates licensed policy assignment from active protection. Its role is device EDR coverage measurement; this case requires granular security baseline compliance.

D:

Encryption reports provide measurable protection coverage. The choice addresses fleet disk-protection measurement rather than granular security baseline compliance.

Question 534

A security baseline conflicts with a business-critical authentication setting on one device type. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Scope a reviewed ASR exception to the minimum permitted app path.
  2. Refuse broad exclusion and define least-necessary verified Defender exclusions.
  3. Investigate detection details before suppressing the indicator.
  4. Pilot and reconcile baseline settings using a documented exception policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Scoped baseline tuning preserves most hardening while fixing verified compatibility. It directly addresses validated baseline deviation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Focused exclusions limit bypass scope while restoring business function. Its role is narrow ASR compatibility exception; this case requires validated baseline deviation.

B:

Broad scan exclusions create avoidable malware blind spots. This is appropriate for constrained antivirus exception, not the specified validated baseline deviation.

C:

Evidence-based alert review prevents premature removal of security signals. That suits defensible EDR alert triage, whereas this device needs validated baseline deviation.

Question 535

Security wants to remove an obsolete application exception that was granted last year. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Update the App Control policy to revoke the no-longer-required allow rule.
  2. Apply an App Control audit policy and inspect code integrity events.
  3. Deploy an approved enforced App Control for Business policy.
  4. Reassess the trusted signer and update reviewed code-integrity rules.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Removing stale exceptions reduces permitted attack surface. It directly addresses revoked unused execution trust.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Audit mode measures untrusted execution without full blocking. That suits application allowlist pilot evidence, whereas this device needs revoked unused execution trust.

C:

Enforcement prevents execution violating the trusted-code rules. The choice addresses active executable allowlisting rather than revoked unused execution trust.

D:

Application control may need updated allowed publisher identity. It solves compliant supplier signer transition; the actual goal is revoked unused execution trust.

Question 536

Security asks how antivirus policy assignments differ for shared kiosks and employee laptops. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Review antivirus threat history and response result.
  2. Inspect applied device antivirus profile groups and filters.
  3. Verify policy receipt and enforce supported tamper protection.
  4. Repair supported update source connectivity and recheck signature age.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Intune policy targeting defines the actual platform and device population. It directly addresses attributable antivirus assignment scope.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Threat action records distinguish detection from successful cleanup. This is appropriate for confirmed malware handling, not the specified attributable antivirus assignment scope.

C:

Tamper protection resists unauthorized local security-setting changes. It solves persistent managed malware protection; the actual goal is attributable antivirus assignment scope.

D:

Malware definition updates rely on reachable approved update infrastructure. Its role is restored antivirus signature updates; this case requires attributable antivirus assignment scope.

Question 537

A contractor can modify every Intune endpoint security policy although hired only for antivirus reports. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Grant scoped Defender incident permissions to the authorized SOC team.
  2. Assign only the relevant scoped remote key action permissions.
  3. Revoke excessive Intune role assignments and grant permitted reporting rights.
  4. Use a suitable read-limited security administrative role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Removing broad policy privileges aligns access with assigned duty. It directly addresses least-privilege security contractor.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security incident operations can be delegated without broad tenant administrator rights. That suits bounded EDR investigation authority, whereas this device needs least-privilege security contractor.

B:

Granular management RBAC minimizes unrelated destructive power. The choice addresses key rotation without wipe rights rather than least-privilege security contractor.

D:

Least-privilege role separation prevents unauthorized device hardening changes. This is appropriate for observation-only security review, not the specified least-privilege security contractor.

Question 538

A machine shows high Defender risk despite a clean antivirus signature status. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Check onboarding policy applicability and endpoint sensor registration.
  2. Validate Defender service URLs and proxy connectivity for that branch.
  3. Deploy and verify BitLocker configuration independently of EDR status.
  4. Investigate underlying EDR alerts and remediation rather than relying on signature freshness.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Risk may reflect behavior and incident evidence beyond malware definitions. It directly addresses resolved endpoint risk evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Effective EDR onboarding requires both policy and active sensor attachment. The choice addresses active Defender device inventory rather than resolved endpoint risk evidence.

B:

Sensor telemetry requires reachability to configured security cloud services. It solves branch EDR connectivity restoration; the actual goal is resolved endpoint risk evidence.

C:

Threat detection does not automatically encrypt local disks. Its role is separate device data-at-rest protection; this case requires resolved endpoint risk evidence.

Question 539

Security wants logs of rejected outgoing connections to an unapproved destination. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Enable applicable Defender Firewall logging and review blocked outbound events.
  2. Review local-rule merge and effective Windows Defender Firewall policy.
  3. Configure a scoped inbound firewall rule with port and remote-address limits.
  4. Harden the Public firewall profile separately from Domain profile.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Filtered-traffic logs make deny enforcement observable. It directly addresses auditable outbound policy effect.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Effective behavior depends on merged policy and local rule precedence. Its role is enforced enterprise RDP restriction; this case requires auditable outbound policy effect.

C:

Address and port constraints permit narrowly authorized service traffic. This is appropriate for subnet-limited service connectivity, not the specified auditable outbound policy effect.

D:

Network profiles change the effective firewall rules based on network trust. That suits reduced public-network exposure, whereas this device needs auditable outbound policy effect.

Question 540

The organization wants to reduce future exploitation of known Microsoft Office child process patterns across the fleet. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Investigate file trust and use approved Defender quarantine disposition.
  2. Apply an appropriate ASR hardening rule through Intune.
  3. Use an authorized Defender for Endpoint device isolation response.
  4. Rotate the recovery protector after controlled recovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Preventive behavior controls address repeated exploit techniques. It directly addresses fleet-scale Office exploit mitigation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Quarantine restoration requires security validation to avoid reactivating malware. It solves defensible false-positive recovery; the actual goal is fleet-scale Office exploit mitigation.

C:

Isolation limits endpoint communication while preserving incident response channels. That suits urgent endpoint network containment, whereas this device needs fleet-scale Office exploit mitigation.

D:

Recovery-key rotation invalidates credentials that were exposed. The choice addresses replacement of used recovery key rather than fleet-scale Office exploit mitigation.


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