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MD-102 Training Course: 84 Video Lectures

MD-102 PDF Study Guide: 512 Pages

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Microsoft MD-102 Practice Test 49

Question 480

An organization wants machine risk from Defender for Endpoint to influence Intune compliance decisions. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Open the Defender investigation and incident timeline for that device.
  2. Check onboarding configuration and device sensor connectivity diagnostics.
  3. Configure supported Defender for Endpoint onboarding through Intune EDR policy.
  4. Integrate Intune with Defender for Endpoint device risk signals.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Machine risk integration feeds endpoint detection health into compliance evaluation. It directly addresses EDR risk-based device access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

EDR incident detail correlates process, alert and behavioral evidence. It solves full suspicious-device investigation; the actual goal is EDR risk-based device access.

B:

Successful policy assignment does not prove active EDR sensor communication. Its role is working Defender endpoint sensor; this case requires EDR risk-based device access.

C:

EDR onboarding establishes device reporting to Microsoft Defender security services. That suits onboarded endpoint detection telemetry, whereas this device needs EDR risk-based device access.

Question 481

Administrators want to evaluate a proposed App Control policy before risking production application outages. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Start with supported audit-mode application control policy.
  2. Update the reviewed application control signing or file rules for the trusted version.
  3. Inspect App Control for Business audit or enforcement events.
  4. Deploy an applicable App Control for Business policy through Intune.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Audit events reveal what code would be denied before enforcement. It directly addresses measured application-control impact.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Trust policies must match the actual approved file identity. This is appropriate for validated program execution exception, not the specified measured application-control impact.

C:

Code-integrity events identify the blocked or audited application identity. That suits executable-policy event evidence, whereas this device needs measured application-control impact.

D:

Application control enforces trusted code execution rules at the platform boundary. It solves allowlisted executable trust; the actual goal is measured application-control impact.

Question 482

Security must submit suspicious unknown executables for approved deeper analysis without uploading unrelated files. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Enable supported Defender Antivirus cloud-delivered protection.
  2. Configure appropriate sample-submission preferences with privacy review.
  3. Enable supported tamper protection and managed antivirus controls.
  4. Inspect Defender Antivirus configuration and health status reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Sample policies govern which candidate binaries may be uploaded for classification. It directly addresses controlled malware sample submission.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cloud protection supplies reputation and analysis beyond local signatures. This is appropriate for rapid emerging-threat detection, not the specified controlled malware sample submission.

C:

Tamper protection limits unauthorized changes to Defender security settings. The choice addresses protected endpoint anti-malware settings rather than controlled malware sample submission.

D:

Security posture reports distinguish configured settings from successful effective state. It solves verified cloud protection deployment; the actual goal is controlled malware sample submission.

Question 483

A threat has been verified and the SOC must contain a compromised device from network activity. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Use the documented Defender review and safe restore procedure.
  2. Review correlated Defender for Endpoint alerts and device timeline.
  3. Use the authorized Defender device isolation response where supported.
  4. Investigate the file indicator and affected devices in Defender XDR.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Device isolation limits lateral communication during incident containment. It directly addresses isolated compromised endpoint.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Controlled restoration avoids undoing malware controls without verification. This is appropriate for legitimate-file quarantine recovery, not the specified isolated compromised endpoint.

B:

EDR activity telemetry relates processes and detections into an investigation. The choice addresses analyzed suspicious PowerShell chain rather than isolated compromised endpoint.

D:

Indicator and device telemetry connects a file with the affected fleet. Its role is scoped malware exposure analysis; this case requires isolated compromised endpoint.

Question 484

A firewall rule has been assigned to a device group but not received after last check-in. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Create scoped endpoint security configuration for the high-risk cohort.
  2. Resolve the overlapping policy conflict and choose authoritative values.
  3. Assign a Windows antivirus policy with appropriate groups and filters.
  4. Trigger a device sync and inspect per-setting deployment state.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Management check-in is needed to report effective firewall configuration. It directly addresses refreshed firewall policy state.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Risk-segmented security policy supports different hardening requirements. That suits specialized high-risk hardening, whereas this device needs refreshed firewall policy state.

B:

Conflicting controls can produce unpredictable or failed effective security settings. The choice addresses consistent antivirus enforcement rather than refreshed firewall policy state.

C:

Policy scope avoids imposing unwanted controls on specialized hardware. Its role is laptop-only antivirus assignment; this case requires refreshed firewall policy state.

Question 485

One laptop's BitLocker protector was inadvertently disclosed to an external vendor. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Rotate the exposed recovery key once the device is safely accessible.
  2. Configure compliant encryption policy with supported Entra recovery-key backup.
  3. Check Intune encryption status and escrow evidence for each endpoint.
  4. Retrieve the recovery key through a scoped authorized management role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Rotation limits future use of a compromised recovery protector. It directly addresses replaced compromised disk recovery secret.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Secure escrow supports legitimate recovery of otherwise protected drives. It solves recoverable first-time encryption rollout; the actual goal is replaced compromised disk recovery secret.

C:

Device-level reporting distinguishes configuration assignment from actual protection. Its role is auditable encryption compliance; this case requires replaced compromised disk recovery secret.

D:

Recovery-key retrieval must be audited and limited to approved support. That suits privileged protected BitLocker recovery, whereas this device needs replaced compromised disk recovery secret.

Question 486

A finance app requires communication only to a defined management server and port. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Use a restrictive Public firewall profile with explicit allowed service rules.
  2. Create a narrow outbound firewall rule to the approved destination.
  3. Verify active firewall profile and adjust valid rules for that network category.
  4. Enable supported firewall logging and inspect blocked connection events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Port/address restrictions permit necessary traffic without broad network access. It directly addresses destination-specific application traffic.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Profile-specific firewall configuration limits exposure outside trusted networks. It solves protected public-network connections; the actual goal is destination-specific application traffic.

C:

Firewall rule behavior is conditional on the effective network profile. This is appropriate for diagnosed network-profile mismatch, not the specified destination-specific application traffic.

D:

Firewall logs provide observable deny behavior without weakening enforcement. That suits measured inbound block evidence, whereas this device needs destination-specific application traffic.

Question 487

The goal is to prevent any unauthorized executable from running, even if it was not launched from Office. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Deploy an appropriate Intune endpoint security baseline.
  2. Enable the appropriate Defender attack surface reduction mitigation.
  3. Enforce an approved App Control for Business trust policy.
  4. Investigate the endpoint in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Code integrity allowlisting controls executable trust rather than just one exploit behavior. It directly addresses general approved-code execution.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Baselines provide a coordinated collection of documented security configurations. It solves broad coordinated Windows hardening; the actual goal is general approved-code execution.

B:

ASR prevents risky process behaviors used in common exploit chains. This is appropriate for blocked document-spawn exploit, not the specified general approved-code execution.

D:

EDR records process and incident telemetry after suspicious execution. The choice addresses post-execution threat analysis rather than general approved-code execution.

Question 488

Security wants every newly enrolled device automatically onboarded to Defender's endpoint sensor. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Review relevant Defender XDR incident and device investigation records.
  2. Diagnose device sensor health and service reachability.
  3. Include Defender device risk in Intune compliance and require a compliant device.
  4. Assign supported Intune EDR onboarding policy to the device cohort.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Sensor onboarding establishes endpoint threat telemetry. It directly addresses managed EDR sensor deployment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cross-signal correlation supports security investigation rather than policy deployment. Its role is incident-backed malware investigation; this case requires managed EDR sensor deployment.

B:

Endpoint protection depends on active communication, not only historic onboarding. This is appropriate for verified current EDR connectivity, not the specified managed EDR sensor deployment.

C:

Endpoint risk becomes an access-relevant compliance signal. The choice addresses threat-informed sign-in restriction rather than managed EDR sensor deployment.

Question 489

Security wants to learn how many ASR rules blocked suspicious Office behavior last month. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Query appropriate Defender ASR audit and block telemetry.
  2. Review Defender EDR onboarding and sensor health status.
  3. Export per-setting security baseline deployment results.
  4. Use device encryption reports and enrolled fleet denominator.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Rule activity events quantify exploit prevention. It directly addresses attack surface reduction evidence.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Sensor health differentiates licensed policy assignment from active protection. That suits device EDR coverage measurement, whereas this device needs attack surface reduction evidence.

C:

Baseline status identifies configuration gaps by device and setting. The choice addresses granular security baseline compliance rather than attack surface reduction evidence.

D:

Encryption reports provide measurable protection coverage. Its role is fleet disk-protection measurement; this case requires attack surface reduction evidence.

Question 490

A vendor asks IT to exclude its entire installation drive from antivirus scanning. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Scope a reviewed ASR exception to the minimum permitted app path.
  2. Refuse broad exclusion and define least-necessary verified Defender exclusions.
  3. Investigate detection details before suppressing the indicator.
  4. Pilot and reconcile baseline settings using a documented exception policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Broad scan exclusions create avoidable malware blind spots. It directly addresses constrained antivirus exception.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Focused exclusions limit bypass scope while restoring business function. That suits narrow ASR compatibility exception, whereas this device needs constrained antivirus exception.

C:

Evidence-based alert review prevents premature removal of security signals. It solves defensible EDR alert triage; the actual goal is constrained antivirus exception.

D:

Scoped baseline tuning preserves most hardening while fixing verified compatibility. Its role is validated baseline deviation; this case requires constrained antivirus exception.


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