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MD-102 Training Course: 84 Video Lectures

MD-102 PDF Study Guide: 512 Pages

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Microsoft MD-102 Practice Test 48

Question 470

A Windows Defender protection setting is turned off locally despite a central hardening requirement. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Review antivirus threat history and response result.
  2. Inspect applied device antivirus profile groups and filters.
  3. Verify policy receipt and enforce supported tamper protection.
  4. Repair supported update source connectivity and recheck signature age.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Tamper protection resists unauthorized local security-setting changes. It directly addresses persistent managed malware protection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Threat action records distinguish detection from successful cleanup. It solves confirmed malware handling; the actual goal is persistent managed malware protection.

B:

Intune policy targeting defines the actual platform and device population. Its role is attributable antivirus assignment scope; this case requires persistent managed malware protection.

D:

Malware definition updates rely on reachable approved update infrastructure. The choice addresses restored antivirus signature updates rather than persistent managed malware protection.

Question 471

Helpdesk needs only security incident read access and no power to alter baseline configurations. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Grant scoped Defender incident permissions to the authorized SOC team.
  2. Assign only the relevant scoped remote key action permissions.
  3. Revoke excessive Intune role assignments and grant permitted reporting rights.
  4. Use a suitable read-limited security administrative role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Least-privilege role separation prevents unauthorized device hardening changes. It directly addresses observation-only security review.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security incident operations can be delegated without broad tenant administrator rights. Its role is bounded EDR investigation authority; this case requires observation-only security review.

B:

Granular management RBAC minimizes unrelated destructive power. This is appropriate for key rotation without wipe rights, not the specified observation-only security review.

C:

Removing broad policy privileges aligns access with assigned duty. That suits least-privilege security contractor, whereas this device needs observation-only security review.

Question 472

Managed Windows computers are not visible in Defender despite Intune EDR configuration. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Check onboarding policy applicability and endpoint sensor registration.
  2. Validate Defender service URLs and proxy connectivity for that branch.
  3. Deploy and verify BitLocker configuration independently of EDR status.
  4. Investigate underlying EDR alerts and remediation rather than relying on signature freshness.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Effective EDR onboarding requires both policy and active sensor attachment. It directly addresses active Defender device inventory.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Sensor telemetry requires reachability to configured security cloud services. That suits branch EDR connectivity restoration, whereas this device needs active Defender device inventory.

C:

Threat detection does not automatically encrypt local disks. The choice addresses separate device data-at-rest protection rather than active Defender device inventory.

D:

Risk may reflect behavior and incident evidence beyond malware definitions. It solves resolved endpoint risk evidence; the actual goal is active Defender device inventory.

Question 473

A new firewall policy is assigned, but a legacy local rule still permits undesired inbound RDP. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Enable applicable Defender Firewall logging and review blocked outbound events.
  2. Review local-rule merge and effective Windows Defender Firewall policy.
  3. Configure a scoped inbound firewall rule with port and remote-address limits.
  4. Harden the Public firewall profile separately from Domain profile.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Effective behavior depends on merged policy and local rule precedence. It directly addresses enforced enterprise RDP restriction.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Filtered-traffic logs make deny enforcement observable. This is appropriate for auditable outbound policy effect, not the specified enforced enterprise RDP restriction.

C:

Address and port constraints permit narrowly authorized service traffic. It solves subnet-limited service connectivity; the actual goal is enforced enterprise RDP restriction.

D:

Network profiles change the effective firewall rules based on network trust. Its role is reduced public-network exposure; this case requires enforced enterprise RDP restriction.

Question 474

An analyst needs to quarantine a confirmed compromised computer from most network communications. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Investigate file trust and use approved Defender quarantine disposition.
  2. Apply an appropriate ASR hardening rule through Intune.
  3. Use an authorized Defender for Endpoint device isolation response.
  4. Rotate the recovery protector after controlled recovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Isolation limits endpoint communication while preserving incident response channels. It directly addresses urgent endpoint network containment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Quarantine restoration requires security validation to avoid reactivating malware. That suits defensible false-positive recovery, whereas this device needs urgent endpoint network containment.

B:

Preventive behavior controls address repeated exploit techniques. The choice addresses fleet-scale Office exploit mitigation rather than urgent endpoint network containment.

D:

Recovery-key rotation invalidates credentials that were exposed. This is appropriate for replacement of used recovery key, not the specified urgent endpoint network containment.

Question 475

A set of approved development folders needs a narrowly justified scanning exclusion without disabling protection everywhere. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Investigate the device through Microsoft Defender for Endpoint threat telemetry.
  2. Assign a Microsoft Defender Antivirus policy enabling required real-time protection.
  3. Create a scoped Defender Antivirus exclusion for the reviewed path.
  4. Trigger and monitor security intelligence updates for affected devices.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Path exclusions change scanning scope and must be constrained to necessary locations. It directly addresses minimal authorized scan exclusion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

EDR investigation captures behavioral alerts beyond simple antivirus configuration. Its role is investigated suspected endpoint compromise; this case requires minimal authorized scan exclusion.

B:

Antivirus profiles configure endpoint malware prevention controls. That suits centrally enforced real-time scanning, whereas this device needs minimal authorized scan exclusion.

D:

Updated signatures give the antivirus engine current detection information. It solves current antivirus intelligence; the actual goal is minimal authorized scan exclusion.

Question 476

A device is encrypted but helpdesk cannot find its recovery protector in the approved identity directory. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Rotate the BitLocker recovery key using an approved supported action.
  2. Review Intune disk-encryption policy status and device encryption reports.
  3. Deploy supported Intune BitLocker disk-encryption policy.
  4. Verify BitLocker recovery-key escrow and directory backup settings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Recovery procedures depend on a securely stored, eligible protector. It directly addresses recoverable encryption credentials.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rotation replaces an exposed recovery protector without disabling encryption. This is appropriate for invalidation of exposed recovery secret, not the specified recoverable encryption credentials.

B:

Encryption reporting measures device protection and deployment failures. That suits verified fleet encryption state, whereas this device needs recoverable encryption credentials.

C:

Disk-encryption settings configure BitLocker protection on supported devices. It solves encrypted corporate system drives; the actual goal is recoverable encryption credentials.

Question 477

One trusted remote-management service needs narrowly specified inbound network ports on a device cohort. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Add a scoped Defender Firewall rule for the required protocol and endpoint.
  2. Review per-rule firewall event evidence and effective policy on the device.
  3. Configure relevant Domain, Private and Public firewall profiles.
  4. Configure Microsoft Defender Firewall profiles and inbound allow rules through Intune.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Explicit rules permit necessary management traffic without opening broad ranges. It directly addresses controlled remote management port.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Effective firewall rules and events identify blocked traffic and conflicting settings. The choice addresses explained application connection block rather than controlled remote management port.

C:

Profile-aware rules adapt endpoint network filtering to the detected network category. It solves risk-aware per-network firewall behavior; the actual goal is controlled remote management port.

D:

Stateful firewall policy can default-deny unapproved inbound traffic. This is appropriate for restricted inbound network exposure, not the specified controlled remote management port.

Question 478

A business-critical macro app may be affected, so IT needs to measure impact before enforcing a new ASR rule. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Configure the supported Defender ASR rule blocking Office child-process creation.
  2. Deploy the relevant ASR rule in Audit mode during the pilot.
  3. Create a narrowly scoped reviewed ASR exclusion where supported.
  4. Inspect Defender ASR events and rule identifiers for the device.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Audit mode records predicted blocks without applying all enforcement consequences. It directly addresses measured ASR rule impact.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ASR rules constrain common exploit behaviors at process boundaries. The choice addresses reduced Office malware execution rather than measured ASR rule impact.

C:

Controlled exclusions preserve protection while accommodating verified exceptions. Its role is defensible ASR exception; this case requires measured ASR rule impact.

D:

ASR telemetry associates enforcement with the exact configured mitigation. This is appropriate for attributable attack-surface enforcement, not the specified measured ASR rule impact.

Question 479

The security baseline conflicts with an existing settings catalog profile on a few devices. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Inspect per-setting baseline deployment status for failed or conflicting configurations.
  2. Assign an Intune Windows security baseline for the supported platform.
  3. Compare overlapping values and consolidate policy ownership.
  4. Review baseline version changes and test them on a pilot cohort.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Multiple policies can set the same endpoint control inconsistently. It directly addresses resolved baseline setting conflict.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Item-level status pinpoints individual hardening settings that did not apply. The choice addresses diagnosed baseline compliance gap rather than resolved baseline setting conflict.

B:

Baselines deliver a curated starting set of security configurations. Its role is standardized secure endpoint configuration; this case requires resolved baseline setting conflict.

D:

Baseline revisions can alter effective hardening behavior. That suits controlled baseline version adoption, whereas this device needs resolved baseline setting conflict.

Question 480

An organization wants machine risk from Defender for Endpoint to influence Intune compliance decisions. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Open the Defender investigation and incident timeline for that device.
  2. Check onboarding configuration and device sensor connectivity diagnostics.
  3. Configure supported Defender for Endpoint onboarding through Intune EDR policy.
  4. Integrate Intune with Defender for Endpoint device risk signals.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Machine risk integration feeds endpoint detection health into compliance evaluation. It directly addresses EDR risk-based device access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

EDR incident detail correlates process, alert and behavioral evidence. It solves full suspicious-device investigation; the actual goal is EDR risk-based device access.

B:

Successful policy assignment does not prove active EDR sensor communication. Its role is working Defender endpoint sensor; this case requires EDR risk-based device access.

C:

EDR onboarding establishes device reporting to Microsoft Defender security services. That suits onboarded endpoint detection telemetry, whereas this device needs EDR risk-based device access.


Endpoint Administrator (MD-102) Practice Tests

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