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MD-102 Premium File: 452 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 05, 2026

MD-102 Training Course: 84 Video Lectures

MD-102 PDF Study Guide: 512 Pages

$79.99

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Microsoft MD-102 Practice Test 46

Question 450

A security engineer wants to correlate a suspicious executable with EDR alerts across the tenant. What is the MOST appropriate Intune administration action?

  1. Execute the applicable Intune device query using KQL.
  2. Use Microsoft Defender XDR security hunting instead of MDM-only diagnostics.
  3. Use Intune's user-centric Troubleshooting view.
  4. Collect management diagnostics and relevant device logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cross-endpoint detection datasets identify security activity across time. It directly addresses tenant EDR correlation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Device query yields current local facts for eligible endpoints. It solves on-demand endpoint fact query; the actual goal is tenant EDR correlation.

C:

Troubleshooting correlates user, apps and assigned device policy. That suits contextual app-assignment support, whereas this device needs tenant EDR correlation.

D:

Client logs expose low-level MDM failures not fully shown in summary reports. The choice addresses technical enrollment log capture rather than tenant EDR correlation.

Question 451

A laptop is healthy but needs a reboot after required configuration changes. What is the BEST next step?

  1. Select the supported Retire action to remove managed organization assets.
  2. Perform an approved Wipe or supported managed reset as appropriate.
  3. Use the supported remote Restart action under maintenance controls.
  4. Send a remote Sync to request MDM reevaluation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Restart applies pending state transitions without disabling MDM. It directly addresses operational restart with policy continuity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Retirement limits scope to managed content for supported ownership scenarios. Its role is offboard BYOD corporate content; this case requires operational restart with policy continuity.

B:

A destructive reset removes local user content to ready corporate reassignment. This is appropriate for cleared prior employee state, not the specified operational restart with policy continuity.

D:

Sync prompts policy refresh without replacing device data. It solves fast management check-in; the actual goal is operational restart with policy continuity.

Question 452

A support lead needs a consolidated picture of a user's compliance and enrollment failures. What should the endpoint administrator do?

  1. Collect Intune device diagnostics for the particular endpoint.
  2. Review Microsoft Defender for Endpoint investigation records.
  3. Use a supported Intune device query on available device tables.
  4. Open user-based Intune Troubleshooting and inspect its policy results.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

User contextual views correlate managed devices with compliance and assignments. It directly addresses per-user support summary.

Incorrect Answers

A:

MDM diagnostics reveal configuration and enrollment execution details. This is appropriate for policy error log evidence, not the specified per-user support summary.

B:

EDR reports security detections beyond MDM delivery metadata. That suits endpoint threat incident evidence, whereas this device needs per-user support summary.

C:

Live queries retrieve current endpoint inventory rather than historical alert logs. The choice addresses current installed-update information rather than per-user support summary.

Question 453

Security needs to configure real-time malware scanning across corporate Windows devices through Intune. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Investigate the device through Microsoft Defender for Endpoint threat telemetry.
  2. Assign a Microsoft Defender Antivirus policy enabling required real-time protection.
  3. Create a scoped Defender Antivirus exclusion for the reviewed path.
  4. Trigger and monitor security intelligence updates for affected devices.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Antivirus profiles configure endpoint malware prevention controls. It directly addresses centrally enforced real-time scanning.

Incorrect Answers

A:

EDR investigation captures behavioral alerts beyond simple antivirus configuration. This is appropriate for investigated suspected endpoint compromise, not the specified centrally enforced real-time scanning.

C:

Path exclusions change scanning scope and must be constrained to necessary locations. It solves minimal authorized scan exclusion; the actual goal is centrally enforced real-time scanning.

D:

Updated signatures give the antivirus engine current detection information. Its role is current antivirus intelligence; this case requires centrally enforced real-time scanning.

Question 454

All company Windows laptops must encrypt OS volumes automatically after management enrollment. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Rotate the BitLocker recovery key using an approved supported action.
  2. Review Intune disk-encryption policy status and device encryption reports.
  3. Deploy supported Intune BitLocker disk-encryption policy.
  4. Verify BitLocker recovery-key escrow and directory backup settings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Disk-encryption settings configure BitLocker protection on supported devices. It directly addresses encrypted corporate system drives.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rotation replaces an exposed recovery protector without disabling encryption. That suits invalidation of exposed recovery secret, whereas this device needs encrypted corporate system drives.

B:

Encryption reporting measures device protection and deployment failures. The choice addresses verified fleet encryption state rather than encrypted corporate system drives.

D:

Recovery procedures depend on a securely stored, eligible protector. This is appropriate for recoverable encryption credentials, not the specified encrypted corporate system drives.

Question 455

Corporate Windows workstations must block unsolicited inbound connections except explicitly approved rules. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Add a scoped Defender Firewall rule for the required protocol and endpoint.
  2. Review per-rule firewall event evidence and effective policy on the device.
  3. Configure relevant Domain, Private and Public firewall profiles.
  4. Configure Microsoft Defender Firewall profiles and inbound allow rules through Intune.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Stateful firewall policy can default-deny unapproved inbound traffic. It directly addresses restricted inbound network exposure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Explicit rules permit necessary management traffic without opening broad ranges. The choice addresses controlled remote management port rather than restricted inbound network exposure.

B:

Effective firewall rules and events identify blocked traffic and conflicting settings. It solves explained application connection block; the actual goal is restricted inbound network exposure.

C:

Profile-aware rules adapt endpoint network filtering to the detected network category. Its role is risk-aware per-network firewall behavior; this case requires restricted inbound network exposure.

Question 456

Security wants to prevent Office processes from spawning untrusted child processes on Windows clients. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Configure the supported Defender ASR rule blocking Office child-process creation.
  2. Deploy the relevant ASR rule in Audit mode during the pilot.
  3. Create a narrowly scoped reviewed ASR exclusion where supported.
  4. Inspect Defender ASR events and rule identifiers for the device.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

ASR rules constrain common exploit behaviors at process boundaries. It directly addresses reduced Office malware execution.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Audit mode records predicted blocks without applying all enforcement consequences. Its role is measured ASR rule impact; this case requires reduced Office malware execution.

C:

Controlled exclusions preserve protection while accommodating verified exceptions. This is appropriate for defensible ASR exception, not the specified reduced Office malware execution.

D:

ASR telemetry associates enforcement with the exact configured mitigation. That suits attributable attack-surface enforcement, whereas this device needs reduced Office malware execution.

Question 457

A new Windows laptop fleet needs a tested collection of recommended device-security settings rather than hand-assembling every option. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Inspect per-setting baseline deployment status for failed or conflicting configurations.
  2. Assign an Intune Windows security baseline for the supported platform.
  3. Compare overlapping values and consolidate policy ownership.
  4. Review baseline version changes and test them on a pilot cohort.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Baselines deliver a curated starting set of security configurations. It directly addresses standardized secure endpoint configuration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Item-level status pinpoints individual hardening settings that did not apply. It solves diagnosed baseline compliance gap; the actual goal is standardized secure endpoint configuration.

C:

Multiple policies can set the same endpoint control inconsistently. That suits resolved baseline setting conflict, whereas this device needs standardized secure endpoint configuration.

D:

Baseline revisions can alter effective hardening behavior. The choice addresses controlled baseline version adoption rather than standardized secure endpoint configuration.

Question 458

New Windows endpoints are managed by Intune but are absent from Defender for Endpoint device inventory. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Open the Defender investigation and incident timeline for that device.
  2. Check onboarding configuration and device sensor connectivity diagnostics.
  3. Configure supported Defender for Endpoint onboarding through Intune EDR policy.
  4. Integrate Intune with Defender for Endpoint device risk signals.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

EDR onboarding establishes device reporting to Microsoft Defender security services. It directly addresses onboarded endpoint detection telemetry.

Incorrect Answers

A:

EDR incident detail correlates process, alert and behavioral evidence. Its role is full suspicious-device investigation; this case requires onboarded endpoint detection telemetry.

B:

Successful policy assignment does not prove active EDR sensor communication. This is appropriate for working Defender endpoint sensor, not the specified onboarded endpoint detection telemetry.

D:

Machine risk integration feeds endpoint detection health into compliance evaluation. It solves EDR risk-based device access; the actual goal is onboarded endpoint detection telemetry.

Question 459

An organization must permit only approved signed applications to run on corporate Windows endpoints. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Start with supported audit-mode application control policy.
  2. Update the reviewed application control signing or file rules for the trusted version.
  3. Inspect App Control for Business audit or enforcement events.
  4. Deploy an applicable App Control for Business policy through Intune.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Application control enforces trusted code execution rules at the platform boundary. It directly addresses allowlisted executable trust.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Audit events reveal what code would be denied before enforcement. This is appropriate for measured application-control impact, not the specified allowlisted executable trust.

B:

Trust policies must match the actual approved file identity. That suits validated program execution exception, whereas this device needs allowlisted executable trust.

C:

Code-integrity events identify the blocked or audited application identity. The choice addresses executable-policy event evidence rather than allowlisted executable trust.

Question 460

Defender Antivirus should use cloud reputation to detect emerging suspicious files on connected Windows PCs. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Enable supported Defender Antivirus cloud-delivered protection.
  2. Configure appropriate sample-submission preferences with privacy review.
  3. Enable supported tamper protection and managed antivirus controls.
  4. Inspect Defender Antivirus configuration and health status reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cloud protection supplies reputation and analysis beyond local signatures. It directly addresses rapid emerging-threat detection.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Sample policies govern which candidate binaries may be uploaded for classification. The choice addresses controlled malware sample submission rather than rapid emerging-threat detection.

C:

Tamper protection limits unauthorized changes to Defender security settings. It solves protected endpoint anti-malware settings; the actual goal is rapid emerging-threat detection.

D:

Security posture reports distinguish configured settings from successful effective state. Its role is verified cloud protection deployment; this case requires rapid emerging-threat detection.


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