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MD-102 Training Course: 84 Video Lectures

MD-102 PDF Study Guide: 512 Pages

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Microsoft MD-102 Practice Test 47

Question 460

Defender Antivirus should use cloud reputation to detect emerging suspicious files on connected Windows PCs. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Enable supported Defender Antivirus cloud-delivered protection.
  2. Configure appropriate sample-submission preferences with privacy review.
  3. Enable supported tamper protection and managed antivirus controls.
  4. Inspect Defender Antivirus configuration and health status reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cloud protection supplies reputation and analysis beyond local signatures. It directly addresses rapid emerging-threat detection.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Sample policies govern which candidate binaries may be uploaded for classification. The choice addresses controlled malware sample submission rather than rapid emerging-threat detection.

C:

Tamper protection limits unauthorized changes to Defender security settings. It solves protected endpoint anti-malware settings; the actual goal is rapid emerging-threat detection.

D:

Security posture reports distinguish configured settings from successful effective state. Its role is verified cloud protection deployment; this case requires rapid emerging-threat detection.

Question 461

One device generates an EDR alert for suspicious PowerShell activity and SOC needs incident context. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Use the documented Defender review and safe restore procedure.
  2. Review correlated Defender for Endpoint alerts and device timeline.
  3. Use the authorized Defender device isolation response where supported.
  4. Investigate the file indicator and affected devices in Defender XDR.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

EDR activity telemetry relates processes and detections into an investigation. It directly addresses analyzed suspicious PowerShell chain.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Controlled restoration avoids undoing malware controls without verification. That suits legitimate-file quarantine recovery, whereas this device needs analyzed suspicious PowerShell chain.

C:

Device isolation limits lateral communication during incident containment. Its role is isolated compromised endpoint; this case requires analyzed suspicious PowerShell chain.

D:

Indicator and device telemetry connects a file with the affected fleet. This is appropriate for scoped malware exposure analysis, not the specified analyzed suspicious PowerShell chain.

Question 462

An antivirus policy should cover only Windows laptops while excluding specialized Windows kiosks. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Create scoped endpoint security configuration for the high-risk cohort.
  2. Resolve the overlapping policy conflict and choose authoritative values.
  3. Assign a Windows antivirus policy with appropriate groups and filters.
  4. Trigger a device sync and inspect per-setting deployment state.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Policy scope avoids imposing unwanted controls on specialized hardware. It directly addresses laptop-only antivirus assignment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Risk-segmented security policy supports different hardening requirements. The choice addresses specialized high-risk hardening rather than laptop-only antivirus assignment.

B:

Conflicting controls can produce unpredictable or failed effective security settings. It solves consistent antivirus enforcement; the actual goal is laptop-only antivirus assignment.

D:

Management check-in is needed to report effective firewall configuration. That suits refreshed firewall policy state, whereas this device needs laptop-only antivirus assignment.

Question 463

An employee is locked out by BitLocker recovery and service desk must assist without exposing keys publicly. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Rotate the exposed recovery key once the device is safely accessible.
  2. Configure compliant encryption policy with supported Entra recovery-key backup.
  3. Check Intune encryption status and escrow evidence for each endpoint.
  4. Retrieve the recovery key through a scoped authorized management role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Recovery-key retrieval must be audited and limited to approved support. It directly addresses privileged protected BitLocker recovery.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rotation limits future use of a compromised recovery protector. It solves replaced compromised disk recovery secret; the actual goal is privileged protected BitLocker recovery.

B:

Secure escrow supports legitimate recovery of otherwise protected drives. Its role is recoverable first-time encryption rollout; this case requires privileged protected BitLocker recovery.

C:

Device-level reporting distinguishes configuration assignment from actual protection. This is appropriate for auditable encryption compliance, not the specified privileged protected BitLocker recovery.

Question 464

Windows endpoints must reject unsolicited inbound traffic on public Wi-Fi while allowing documented enterprise app access. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Use a restrictive Public firewall profile with explicit allowed service rules.
  2. Create a narrow outbound firewall rule to the approved destination.
  3. Verify active firewall profile and adjust valid rules for that network category.
  4. Enable supported firewall logging and inspect blocked connection events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Profile-specific firewall configuration limits exposure outside trusted networks. It directly addresses protected public-network connections.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Port/address restrictions permit necessary traffic without broad network access. This is appropriate for destination-specific application traffic, not the specified protected public-network connections.

C:

Firewall rule behavior is conditional on the effective network profile. That suits diagnosed network-profile mismatch, whereas this device needs protected public-network connections.

D:

Firewall logs provide observable deny behavior without weakening enforcement. The choice addresses measured inbound block evidence rather than protected public-network connections.

Question 465

A PowerShell-based exploit attempts to launch malicious commands from Office documents. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Deploy an appropriate Intune endpoint security baseline.
  2. Enable the appropriate Defender attack surface reduction mitigation.
  3. Enforce an approved App Control for Business trust policy.
  4. Investigate the endpoint in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

ASR prevents risky process behaviors used in common exploit chains. It directly addresses blocked document-spawn exploit.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Baselines provide a coordinated collection of documented security configurations. Its role is broad coordinated Windows hardening; this case requires blocked document-spawn exploit.

C:

Code integrity allowlisting controls executable trust rather than just one exploit behavior. The choice addresses general approved-code execution rather than blocked document-spawn exploit.

D:

EDR records process and incident telemetry after suspicious execution. It solves post-execution threat analysis; the actual goal is blocked document-spawn exploit.

Question 466

Conditional Access must block devices Defender rates as high risk after malicious activity. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Review relevant Defender XDR incident and device investigation records.
  2. Diagnose device sensor health and service reachability.
  3. Include Defender device risk in Intune compliance and require a compliant device.
  4. Assign supported Intune EDR onboarding policy to the device cohort.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Endpoint risk becomes an access-relevant compliance signal. It directly addresses threat-informed sign-in restriction.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cross-signal correlation supports security investigation rather than policy deployment. This is appropriate for incident-backed malware investigation, not the specified threat-informed sign-in restriction.

B:

Endpoint protection depends on active communication, not only historic onboarding. That suits verified current EDR connectivity, whereas this device needs threat-informed sign-in restriction.

D:

Sensor onboarding establishes endpoint threat telemetry. Its role is managed EDR sensor deployment; this case requires threat-informed sign-in restriction.

Question 467

A manager asks for percentage of managed devices with BitLocker protection active. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Query appropriate Defender ASR audit and block telemetry.
  2. Review Defender EDR onboarding and sensor health status.
  3. Export per-setting security baseline deployment results.
  4. Use device encryption reports and enrolled fleet denominator.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Encryption reports provide measurable protection coverage. It directly addresses fleet disk-protection measurement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rule activity events quantify exploit prevention. That suits attack surface reduction evidence, whereas this device needs fleet disk-protection measurement.

B:

Sensor health differentiates licensed policy assignment from active protection. The choice addresses device EDR coverage measurement rather than fleet disk-protection measurement.

C:

Baseline status identifies configuration gaps by device and setting. It solves granular security baseline compliance; the actual goal is fleet disk-protection measurement.

Question 468

An approved line-of-business application is blocked by an ASR mitigation that is otherwise effective. Which approach addresses the stated endpoint-management need?

  1. Scope a reviewed ASR exception to the minimum permitted app path.
  2. Refuse broad exclusion and define least-necessary verified Defender exclusions.
  3. Investigate detection details before suppressing the indicator.
  4. Pilot and reconcile baseline settings using a documented exception policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Focused exclusions limit bypass scope while restoring business function. It directly addresses narrow ASR compatibility exception.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Broad scan exclusions create avoidable malware blind spots. It solves constrained antivirus exception; the actual goal is narrow ASR compatibility exception.

C:

Evidence-based alert review prevents premature removal of security signals. Its role is defensible EDR alert triage; this case requires narrow ASR compatibility exception.

D:

Scoped baseline tuning preserves most hardening while fixing verified compatibility. This is appropriate for validated baseline deviation, not the specified narrow ASR compatibility exception.

Question 469

The company wants to inventory which executables an allowlist would block before applying deny rules. Which configuration BEST meets this requirement?

  1. Update the App Control policy to revoke the no-longer-required allow rule.
  2. Apply an App Control audit policy and inspect code integrity events.
  3. Deploy an approved enforced App Control for Business policy.
  4. Reassess the trusted signer and update reviewed code-integrity rules.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Audit mode measures untrusted execution without full blocking. It directly addresses application allowlist pilot evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing stale exceptions reduces permitted attack surface. The choice addresses revoked unused execution trust rather than application allowlist pilot evidence.

C:

Enforcement prevents execution violating the trusted-code rules. This is appropriate for active executable allowlisting, not the specified application allowlist pilot evidence.

D:

Application control may need updated allowed publisher identity. That suits compliant supplier signer transition, whereas this device needs application allowlist pilot evidence.

Question 470

A Windows Defender protection setting is turned off locally despite a central hardening requirement. Which device-management decision is MOST appropriate?

  1. Review antivirus threat history and response result.
  2. Inspect applied device antivirus profile groups and filters.
  3. Verify policy receipt and enforce supported tamper protection.
  4. Repair supported update source connectivity and recheck signature age.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Tamper protection resists unauthorized local security-setting changes. It directly addresses persistent managed malware protection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Threat action records distinguish detection from successful cleanup. It solves confirmed malware handling; the actual goal is persistent managed malware protection.

B:

Intune policy targeting defines the actual platform and device population. Its role is attributable antivirus assignment scope; this case requires persistent managed malware protection.

D:

Malware definition updates rely on reachable approved update infrastructure. The choice addresses restored antivirus signature updates rather than persistent managed malware protection.


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