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Last Update: Sep 27, 2026

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 18

Question 170

A numbered extended ACL contains two explicit permit entries but no final deny line. A technician asks whether other unmatched traffic is accepted by default. Which rule applies?

  1. An ACL only operates when an interface has no default gateway.
  2. An implicit deny at the end rejects packets that match none of the permit statements.
  3. An implicit permit forwards every unmentioned flow.
  4. ACL evaluation begins with the last line and then moves upward.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cisco ACLs use ordered first-match evaluation and an implicit deny for unmatched traffic. Add explicit permits for necessary flows before applying the policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Interface gateway configuration affects routing reachability but does not control the implicit deny semantics of an applied ACL.

C:

An unmatched packet is not implicitly allowed simply because administrators omitted a textual deny entry. The default tail behavior is deny.

D:

ACL entries are processed top to bottom until the first match. Reverse evaluation would produce very different permit/deny outcomes and is not the normal rule.

Question 171

An IOS route is shown as `S 172.30.0.0/16 via 192.0.2.6, GigabitEthernet0/1`. Which part is the next-hop router rather than the egress physical interface?

  1. GigabitEthernet0/1 is the remote router IP address.
  2. The route code S is the IP address of the next router.
  3. 192.0.2.6 is the next-hop IP; GigabitEthernet0/1 is the local outgoing interface.
  4. 172.30.0.0/16 is the next hop; 192.0.2.6 is the destination prefix.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A next-hop IP identifies the adjacent routing device to which a packet is forwarded. The outgoing interface identifies the local hardware/link used for that forwarding.

Incorrect Answers

A:

GigabitEthernet0/1 names a local router port and cannot serve as a literal remote IPv4 address. It can be part of forwarding resolution but is not the next-hop IP.

B:

Cisco route code S indicates static routing origin. It is not an IP address and cannot identify a neighbor router's address.

D:

172.30.0.0/16 is the matched destination network. The `via` syntax identifies 192.0.2.6 as next hop rather than the remote destination prefix.

Question 172

Two virtual machines on one hypervisor exchange Ethernet traffic within the same virtual LAN and no physical cable needs to carry that exchange. What component usually forwards their frames?

  1. The host's virtual switch that connects their virtual network interface cards.
  2. Use the hypervisor management NIC as the only forwarding path between the guests even though both virtual NICs attach to the same virtual switch.
  3. Require each guest to send its frames to a physical uplink switch before forwarding them back to the second guest on the same hypervisor.
  4. The physical WAN provider's edge router on another site.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A virtual switch forwards Layer 2 frames among virtual NICs connected to the same host-side virtual network. Physical uplinks are needed only for traffic exiting that virtual switching domain.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The management NIC handles host management connectivity, not the necessary local guest-to-guest Ethernet switching. The virtual switch can bridge guests on the same VLAN without external physical traversal.

C:

Local switching can take place within the host virtual switch when both guest ports share the VLAN; forcing a physical hairpin path adds an unnecessary dependency.

D:

A WAN provider router may forward traffic after it leaves a site, but same-host VM switching does not require a remote physical edge hop.

Question 173

A Cisco switch supports a routed Layer 3 EtherChannel to an adjacent distribution switch. Four physical members must share one Layer 3 point-to-point address, not each hold separate host addresses. Where does the IP address belong?

  1. Configure the same routed IP address separately on each physical EtherChannel member instead of on the logical Port-channel interface.
  2. On all four physical interfaces with the identical IP address.
  3. Apply the desired /30 address to a management VLAN SVI but leave the routed port-channel without the transit IP configuration.
  4. On the routed logical Port-channel interface after physical members join the bundle.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A Layer 3 EtherChannel presents one logical interface for routing and IP addressing. Physical members aggregate the link and generally inherit the logical configuration as appropriate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A routed EtherChannel presents one logical Layer 3 interface. Applying the identical gateway to separate members violates the logical bundle design and may cause IP conflicts.

B:

Assigning the same Layer 3 IP separately to four members creates address conflicts and does not establish one supported logical routed bundle.

C:

The routed peer-to-peer transit must be addressed on its actual logical Port-channel; a separate management SVI does not terminate that Layer 3 adjacency.

Question 174

A router is the DHCP server for VLAN 40. Its IP is 192.168.40.1, printers must use .2 through .9 statically, and clients should receive the gateway in their leases. Which configuration idea is correct?

  1. Move the gateway address to the dynamic address range with no exclusion.
  2. Exclude .1 through .9 from DHCP allocation and configure the pool's default-router option as 192.168.40.1.
  3. Include the printer static range in the pool and advertise .254 as gateway.
  4. Configure only a DNS name server and omit the router option.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Excluded address ranges prevent duplicate assignment to reserved infrastructure, while the DHCP default-router option tells client hosts the correct VLAN gateway.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The gateway itself should not be leased to an ordinary client. Excluding its IP prevents conflicts with the router interface serving the VLAN.

C:

Assigning reserved printer addresses dynamically risks duplicate IPs and .254 does not match the actual SVI gateway the scenario names.

D:

DNS information helps resolve names but does not give hosts their IP next hop for off-subnet destinations. The default-router option is separately required.

Question 175

An automation pipeline changes switch access VLANs during a maintenance window. Operations wants to know exactly what changed and restore the previous approved state if an error occurs. Which practice is appropriate?

  1. Delete archived configurations as soon as commands apply.
  2. Run `write erase` before each small VLAN update.
  3. Keep reviewed version-controlled configurations, pre/post diff evidence and a tested rollback procedure.
  4. Use a shared undocumented admin account for every job.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Version-controlled desired state, change logs and validation provide traceability. A tested rollback can restore approved settings after a failure without guessing which commands were sent.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Deleting change history prevents reconstructing prior working state and weakens operational recovery when a deployment has unexpected consequences.

B:

Erasing the whole device configuration is disproportionate to an access VLAN modification and creates serious downtime risk rather than a controlled rollback.

D:

Shared accounts undermine attribution, especially for automated changes that may impact several devices simultaneously. Scoped authenticated identities are preferable.

Question 176

An installed routing table sends 10.50.9.0/24 toward R2, but has a dedicated /32 host exception for 10.50.9.77 toward R3. An operator tests two destinations, 10.50.9.77 and 10.50.9.78. Which forwarding result is expected if both routes stay active?

  1. Only traffic for 10.50.9.77 uses the /32 path to R3; 10.50.9.78 still matches the broader /24 path to R2.
  2. Both destinations use R2, because the /24 route covers more total IP addresses than the /32.
  3. Both destinations use R3, because adding one host route overrides the forwarding decision for the entire /24 subnet.
  4. The first destination is forwarded according to the route that was configured most recently; prefix length does not affect the second destination.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The /32 matches all 32 bits of 10.50.9.77 and wins the longest-prefix lookup for that exact host. It does not include 10.50.9.78, so the installed /24 path remains the most-specific matching route for the nearby address. This illustrates the narrow scope of a host-route exception.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The /24 does contain both addresses, but forwarding chooses the most-specific installed match for each destination independently. A valid /32 for .77 outranks that aggregate only when the destination equals the host-route address.

C:

A /32 host route represents one IPv4 destination, not a replacement for every host in the containing /24. Only .77 uses the special next hop; .78 does not match the host route and continues toward the subnet next hop.

D:

Installation chronology does not replace longest-prefix matching among active routes. The router performs an independent destination lookup for each packet, and the difference between .77 and .78 is whether the host-specific entry matches.

Question 177

A router secures traffic between two private branch networks over the public Internet using IPsec. The security policy needs the original entire inside IP packet protected inside an outer routable packet. Which IPsec mode is relevant?

  1. GRE without IPsec, since GRE automatically encrypts data.
  2. Transport mode only, which keeps the original outer source and destination headers as used for host-to-host protection.
  3. Plain NAT translation as the packet confidentiality mechanism.
  4. Tunnel mode, which encapsulates the original IP packet inside a new outer IP header with protection.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

IPsec tunnel mode can protect the original inner IP packet and encapsulate it for transit between VPN gateways. ESP supplies confidentiality/integrity as configured.

Incorrect Answers

A:

GRE encapsulation without IPsec is not encryption. A tunnel header alone does not satisfy the confidentiality requirement for traffic over an untrusted ISP.

B:

Transport mode commonly protects the payload while retaining the original IP header and is not the described gateway-to-gateway encapsulation of whole original packets.

C:

NAT can alter addresses but does not cryptographically protect the original data or authenticate tunnel peers. IPsec provides the necessary security associations and protection.

Question 178

A data-center fabric connects each leaf switch to every spine and uses equal-cost IP paths. A server sends traffic to a different rack. What property makes this scalable?

  1. STP blocks all but one spine uplink at Layer 2 by definition.
  2. Leaf-to-spine multipath permits predictable east-west transport with several equivalent uplinks.
  3. Each server must traverse a single mandatory campus distribution switch before any spine.
  4. Every leaf is connected only to one other leaf in a linear chain.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Spine-leaf topologies connect leafs via shared spines, providing multiple short paths for east-west traffic and allowing ECMP under appropriate routing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Routed spine-leaf underlays can exploit ECMP rather than depending on blocking redundant routed links through Layer 2 STP. The premise is equal-cost IP transport.

C:

A separate fixed campus distribution bottleneck is not inherent to spine-leaf fabric. The design instead uses multiple spines and leaves with predictable hop patterns.

D:

A linear chain introduces variable hops and failure dependencies; it does not provide the multiple equal-cost paths described in the scenario.

Question 179

A corporation's staff WLAN requires unique employee sign-in backed by centralized RADIUS, not one shared password for everyone. Which authentication mode fits the controller configuration?

  1. WPA2-Personal with one preshared key shared by all users.
  2. WEP with a long common passphrase and no AAA integration.
  3. WPA2-Enterprise with 802.1X/EAP and the approved RADIUS service.
  4. An open SSID with a hidden broadcast name.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X/EAP for individual authentication with an appropriate backend identity service such as RADIUS. Authorize groups to intended VLANs as supported.

Incorrect Answers

A:

WPA2-Personal authenticates possession of a shared PSK and does not provide the requested per-employee RADIUS credential workflow by itself.

B:

WEP is obsolete and uses weak shared-key cryptography. It neither supplies modern AES WLAN protection nor centralized individual identity integration.

D:

Hiding an SSID does not authenticate individual staff or encrypt client traffic. It is not a substitute for an enterprise EAP exchange.

Question 180

An IPv6 router must add a static route for 2001:db8:72:5::/64 via adjacent 2001:db8:72:1::2. The operator writes an IPv4 `ip route` command and IOS rejects it. What should be used?

  1. `ipv6 route 2001:db8:72:5::/64 2001:db8:72:1::2`.
  2. `ipv6 address 2001:db8:72:5::/64` on the router's LAN.
  3. `ip default-gateway 2001:db8:72:1::2` on a routing-enabled router.
  4. `ip route 2001:db8:72:5::/64 2001:db8:72:1::2`.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cisco IOS uses the IPv6-specific static route command with prefix length and IPv6 next hop. Verify link and next-hop resolution, then inspect show ipv6 route.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Assigning the remote prefix to a local interface creates an incorrect connected network instead of a path via the known neighbor.

C:

An IPv4-oriented default-gateway command on a routed switch is not the way to add the specific IPv6 /64 static route to the active table.

D:

The IPv4 route syntax expects IPv4 network/address values and cannot directly encode the IPv6 prefixes in this question.


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