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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 16

Question 150

A facilities contractor needs occasional physical access to a locked wiring closet. Security policy requires preventing unauthorized changes to production switches. Which program control is most relevant?

  1. Allow unknown visitors to share a network operator's administrative login.
  2. Enforce badge-authorized closet entry with access logs and supervised contractor procedures.
  3. Publish the wiring closet door code in the building's guest Wi-Fi welcome page.
  4. Disable switch port security globally so the contractor can attach any device.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Physical access controls, visitor management and audit logs reduce the chance that unauthorized people can reach cable plant and network devices. Contractor permissions should be explicit and time bounded.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared administrative accounts erase individual accountability and do not verify that a physical visitor is approved for a wiring closet. Access must be controlled and traceable.

C:

Making the entry code public undermines the security boundary and allows anyone viewing guest information to enter sensitive infrastructure areas.

D:

Port security protects certain Layer 2 attachment risks but does not authorize physical contractor access. Disabling it broadly weakens endpoint control.

Question 151

A router knows 10.90.0.0/16 via OSPF and a local 10.90.4.19/32 host route. It forwards a packet to 10.90.4.19. Which entry is matched?

  1. The /16 route because it contains more total addresses.
  2. Both routes are necessarily ECMP for this one packet.
  3. The installed /32 host route because it is more specific.
  4. The lowest administrative distance is checked before comparing prefixes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

IP forwarding applies the longest matching prefix among installed routes, so a /32 uniquely identifies 10.90.4.19. The /16 remains useful for other addresses.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A broad aggregate may cover the destination but contains fewer specified bits. A valid host route wins the destination lookup even if the aggregate serves more networks.

B:

Equal-cost multipath operates across equivalent next hops for the same prefix. A host and an aggregate prefix are not equal matches to this destination.

D:

Administrative distance decides installation between candidate sources for the same prefix; it does not choose a broader route over a more-specific installed host entry.

Question 152

An IPv6 endpoint has fe80::3a11 on its wireless interface. A technician tries to use this address as a remote management target from a different routed subnet. What scope limitation explains the failure?

  1. fe80::/10 link-local addresses are limited to their local link and cannot be routed between links.
  2. The address is IPv6 multicast and needs a multicast routing tree.
  3. Only IPv6 unique-local addresses may be used by directly adjacent hosts.
  4. fe80::/10 addresses are globally reachable when their host bits are unique.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Link-local IPv6 communication uses addresses in fe80::/10 for neighbor discovery and same-link traffic. A router does not forward these addresses across a separate routed segment.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Multicast groups begin ff00::/8. The fe80 prefix is unicast link-local, so creating a multicast distribution tree would not change its routing scope.

C:

Unique-local addresses in fc00::/7 can be routed within an administrative domain. Link-local addresses are a different class, confined to their originating link.

D:

Unique interface identifiers do not expand link-local scope. Even collision-free fe80 addresses require an interface-zone context on the local link and cannot serve as Internet-routing destinations.

Question 153

A user laptop directly connects to a switch access port, and the switchport is confirmed not to connect another switch or a bridge. DHCP response time is delayed by initial spanning-tree convergence. Which setting fits?

  1. Disable spanning tree on all access VLANs.
  2. Force the interswitch uplink into PortFast to suppress loop checks.
  3. Increase bridge priority until the laptop becomes root.
  4. Enable PortFast on this verified end-host edge port with appropriate BPDU protection.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

PortFast lets a confirmed edge port reach forwarding promptly while retaining spanning-tree operation elsewhere. BPDU Guard can shut the port if a switch unexpectedly appears.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Disabling spanning tree across the network removes protection against redundant Layer 2 links and is disproportionate to edge-host DHCP delay.

B:

PortFast on a genuine interswitch link can skip necessary loop-prevention transitions and cause a bridging loop. It should be enabled only for verified edge attachment.

C:

End hosts do not elect STP bridge roots merely by changing switch priority. The issue is forwarding delay on an edge interface.

Question 154

A campus router creates syslog messages. Operators need the last 200 local events preserved in device memory after losing connectivity to the remote collector, without relying on the console display. Which logging target fits?

  1. Configure SNMP polling and assume it stores the full local syslog stream.
  2. Configure buffered logging with suitable in-memory buffer size and severity.
  3. Configure only logging console and disconnect the console cable.
  4. Configure only remote host logging with no local buffer.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Buffered syslog stores selected messages in device memory and can be inspected after a temporary collector outage, subject to buffer rollover. Choose severity and size deliberately.

Incorrect Answers

A:

SNMP polls structured management variables and is not equivalent to retaining a chronological local syslog buffer. Different monitoring mechanisms can coexist but answer different needs.

C:

Console logging prints messages to the attached terminal, not necessarily to a durable in-memory history for later inspection when no console is connected.

D:

Remote logging sends events to the syslog destination but does not preserve a separate local copy when connectivity fails. It cannot satisfy the stated offline local history requirement alone.

Question 155

A software-defined campus controller computes a reachability policy, while ASICs on switches perform frame and packet forwarding. Which network architecture principle is illustrated?

  1. Moving all data traffic through the management database as text.
  2. Treating SNMP polling as the only forwarding plane.
  3. Separating the control plane's decisions from the forwarding data plane's packet movement.
  4. Eliminating the need for any routed connectivity between switches.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The control plane establishes policies and forwarding state while the data plane forwards packets using installed tables. Controllers may centralize decisions without carrying every frame.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Management databases store configuration or telemetry, not a required real-time packet path for all Ethernet traffic. Sending traffic through text storage would not replace forwarding ASICs.

B:

SNMP reads or sets management information and reports events. It does not forward production user packets as a replacement for the switch data plane.

D:

SDN still depends on network links and routable underlays as appropriate. Centralized decisions do not remove the physical need for transport connectivity.

Question 156

A branch uses VRRP on two routers to provide a stable default gateway. Router A is master until its failure and router B then assumes the virtual address. Which behavior explains client continuity?

  1. VRRP elects a master/backup relationship for a shared virtual IP gateway.
  2. VRRP performs DNS translation to identify a new default router for each packet.
  3. Both routers must advertise different physical default-gateway addresses to users.
  4. Every client must manually select a new gateway IP after master failure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

VRRP presents a common gateway identity and changes which router owns master forwarding responsibility. Hosts continue sending to the same configured virtual gateway after failover.

Incorrect Answers

B:

DNS is unrelated to Ethernet first-hop virtual router election and does not rewrite the packet's gateway after every failure.

C:

Hosts are normally configured for the virtual address, not a changing pair of physical router gateway IPs. The redundancy protocol handles ownership.

D:

Manual client reconfiguration defeats the first-hop redundancy objective. Backup master transition is meant to preserve one consistent next-hop identity.

Question 157

A school Wi-Fi modernization policy requires resistance to offline guessing of weak preshared keys and clients that support the newer personal-security handshake. Which protocol feature is most relevant?

  1. An open SSID with a concealed beacon name.
  2. WEP using a longer static key typed by users.
  3. WPA2 with TKIP enabled for backwards compatibility.
  4. WPA3-Personal with SAE rather than older WPA2-PSK four-way key derivation alone.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Simultaneous Authentication of Equals in WPA3-Personal improves key exchange resistance to offline dictionary attacks compared with traditional WPA2-PSK behavior. Validate client compatibility and transition policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Hiding an SSID does not secure association or encryption and leaves user traffic exposed on an open WLAN.

B:

WEP remains cryptographically unsuitable regardless of passphrase length and does not supply SAE's authenticated password exchange.

C:

WPA2 with TKIP retains an obsolete cipher and is not the newer SAE handshake requested by the security policy.

Question 158

A Cisco router interface must participate in the routed subnet 2001:db8:77:30::/64 during an IPv6 lab. The instructor wants a specific globally scoped interface address. Which configuration is appropriate?

  1. Add a DNS AAAA record without assigning an address to the router.
  2. Configure `ipv6 address 2001:db8:77:30::1/64` on the intended interface and enable IPv6 routing as needed.
  3. Configure only `ipv6 address fe80::1 link-local` and claim it is the global subnet address.
  4. Configure `ip address 2001:db8:77:30::1 255.255.255.0` in IPv4 interface syntax.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cisco IOS IPv6 interface addressing accepts a prefix-length notation and associates the address with the specified interface. The documentation prefix is suitable for lab illustration only.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS records publish name-to-address mappings; they cannot create an active IPv6 address on a router interface or enable forwarding.

C:

Link-local fe80 addresses provide same-link communication but are not the configured global-unicast /64 requested for routing outside the local segment.

D:

IPv4 interface address commands and dotted masks do not parse an IPv6 literal. IPv6 has its own address configuration and prefix length syntax.

Question 159

A Cisco switch uplink connects directly to a third-party untrusted contractor network. The company does not want local device identity and software details advertised to that neighbor. Which control is relevant?

  1. Enable CDP globally and increase its advertisement frequency.
  2. Convert the switch's hostname to a DNS alias but continue CDP transmission.
  3. Disable CDP advertisements on that exposed interface while preserving it on trusted internal ports as needed.
  4. Increase STP root priority to conceal the switch identity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

CDP sends Cisco neighbor identity and capability information over enabled links. Disabling it per exposed interface limits disclosure while retaining discovery on trusted segments.

Incorrect Answers

A:

More frequent CDP messages increase, not reduce, the information revealed to a neighbor. This runs counter to the external exposure concern.

B:

Renaming the hostname changes one advertised field but leaves CDP discovery active. The security requirement is to avoid advertising device details at all.

D:

STP priority affects bridging role election and does not disable CDP advertisements or their TLV content on an interface.

Question 160

Four routers elect an OSPF broadcast-network DR together. Router A has interface priority 10; B 20; C 5; and D 0. All otherwise eligible and reachable. Which router wins the initial DR preference?

  1. Router B with priority 20.
  2. Router A because its name comes first alphabetically.
  3. Router C because the lowest positive priority is best.
  4. Router D because priority zero indicates special importance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Eligible OSPF DR elections consider the highest interface priority before router ID tie breakers. Router B outranks A and C, while D is ineligible at zero.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Router names are not selection inputs for DR election. With unequal priority values, a name-based ordering is irrelevant.

C:

Unlike an OSPF path cost, interface priority favors the higher configured value during DR selection. Priority 5 does not beat 20.

D:

A priority-zero interface may participate in the segment but cannot be elected DR/BDR. Zero is an exclusion, not a highest rank.


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