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Last Update: Sep 27, 2026

200-301 PDF Study Guide: 1969 Pages

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 15

Question 140

A router on an OSPF broadcast segment should participate in routing but must never become DR or BDR, even if other routers fail or priorities change. Which interface priority fits?

  1. Set OSPF interface priority 0 on that router's broadcast interface.
  2. Set OSPF reference bandwidth to zero to disable election.
  3. Lower the router's system hostname alphabetically.
  4. Set OSPF interface priority 255 for highest eligibility.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

OSPF priority zero explicitly makes a router ineligible for DR and BDR election on that segment while it may still form required neighbor relationships.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Reference bandwidth changes how interface cost is calculated and is unrelated to suppressing DR candidacy. It should not be set to an invalid value as a proxy for election policy.

C:

Router name ordering does not determine OSPF DR or BDR election. Priority and router ID govern the eligible neighbor selection on a broadcast network.

D:

Priority 255 is high and would make the router a strong DR/BDR candidate during an election, contrary to the requirement.

Question 141

A firewall team reviews source address 172.20.45.9 and 172.32.45.9 and wants to know which falls within RFC1918 private IPv4 172.16.0.0/12. What is correct?

  1. Only 172.32.45.9 is private because its second octet is larger.
  2. Both addresses are private because they begin with 172.
  3. Neither is private because the block starts with 192.168.
  4. Only 172.20.45.9 is within the 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 private block.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The 172.16.0.0/12 private range spans second octets 16 to 31 inclusive. 172.20 is inside; 172.32 is outside that reserved range.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A larger second octet does not imply private addressing. The /12 private block stops at 172.31.255.255, so 172.32 is beyond it.

B:

Many 172.x addresses are globally allocated and cannot be assumed RFC1918 private solely from the first octet. The second octet boundaries matter.

C:

RFC1918 also includes 10/8 and 192.168/16, but 172.16/12 is independently private. An address need not begin with 192.168 to be non-public.

Question 142

A new Cisco router is physically installed with no working management IP or SSH service. A technician is standing at the rack and must configure the first interface address. Which access method is most reliable?

  1. Attempt remote SSH setup before assigning a reachable management IP or completing the initial console-based bootstrap.
  2. Use a direct console connection to the router's console port.
  3. Connect by SSH to an unassigned management IPv4 address.
  4. Attempt a browser HTTPS session to an unconfigured management endpoint that has no current address or service.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Console access uses an out-of-band local terminal path that does not require an already configured IP route or remote-access service. It is suitable for initial bootstrap.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Without management reachability or enabled SSH, the technician needs an initial out-of-band console path to configure the device.

C:

SSH requires a reachable IP path and appropriately enabled SSH server and authentication. The router explicitly lacks those prerequisites, so this is not yet available.

D:

A web management session depends on an accessible interface and service; initial setup requires the supported local connection.

Question 143

A Cisco router has a static route to 10.77.0.0/16 pointing at 192.0.2.10, which is not directly connected. A valid separate route can reach that next hop. Which TWO statements correctly describe the forwarding process? (Select TWO.)

  1. The next-hop must always be directly connected or the static route configuration is categorically invalid.
  2. The router recursively resolves 192.0.2.10 against an installed route until it reaches a usable forwarding adjacency.
  3. ARP directly for every remote 10.77 host even though the static route identifies an IP next hop that is recursively reachable.
  4. Use the default route instead of the explicitly configured static 10.77/16 route merely because its next hop is not directly connected.
  5. The recursive lookup ultimately selects an egress interface and Layer 2 neighbor for forwarding the remote network traffic.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

A next-hop-only static route may be resolved through another installed routing entry. The route to 192.0.2.10 supplies the next recursive resolution step rather than requiring a directly attached neighbor at the initial lookup.

E:

Once recursive resolution reaches a connected outgoing network, the router can determine its usable outgoing interface and associated neighbor adjacency. Forwarding then uses the resolved neighbor, not a randomly chosen user VLAN.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A next hop need not be directly connected for every valid Cisco static routing configuration. Recursive lookup can resolve an indirect next hop through compatible installed routing entries.

C:

Proper route recursion resolves the next-hop neighbor on an on-link interface; ARP does not cross routed hops to remote hosts.

D:

A valid recursive next-hop route can make the specific static usable; compare actual installed routes and recursion before choosing default.

Question 144

A security auditor requires encrypted SNMP management traffic and authenticated polling between a monitoring server and network switches. Which SNMP version/security mode fits?

  1. SNMPv3 using an appropriately configured authentication and privacy user.
  2. SNMPv1 with community name set to the administrator password.
  3. SNMP traps without any manager authentication.
  4. SNMPv2c with a common cleartext community string.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

SNMPv3 supports user-based security with authentication and optional encryption privacy, meeting the stated requirement when deployed in authPriv mode.

Incorrect Answers

B:

SNMPv1 lacks modern USM authentication and privacy features. Copying a password into a community string does not create encrypted management sessions.

C:

Asynchronous trap messages are a type of notification, not a version or security model that guarantees authenticated encrypted polling. A secure SNMPv3 configuration is needed.

D:

SNMPv2c community strings are not a substitute for per-user encrypted and authenticated management traffic. A shared community may be exposed in cleartext.

Question 145

A switch enables Dynamic ARP Inspection on VLAN 42 to reject spoofed ARP replies. It already runs DHCP snooping for ordinary DHCP clients. Which database is normally used to validate their ARP address bindings?

  1. Validate ARP solely against the device MAC forwarding table without checking the claimed sender IPv4-to-MAC binding.
  2. Treat OSPF link-state advertisements as the authoritative IP-to-MAC security binding for a switched access VLAN.
  3. Trust any ARP reply from a host with a valid DNS hostname, without validating the MAC/IP binding.
  4. The DHCP snooping binding table associating IP, MAC, VLAN and interface.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

DAI can check incoming ARP packets against verified DHCP snooping bindings, rejecting inconsistent IP/MAC claims on untrusted ports. Static clients may require explicit ARP ACL handling.

Incorrect Answers

A:

MAC learning alone cannot establish whether an ARP packet’s sender address association matches legitimate DHCP or approved static records.

B:

OSPF distributes routed topology, not the per-host DHCP snooping binding evidence DAI uses for ARP inspection.

C:

Name resolution does not authenticate an ARP sender’s claimed link-layer identity; use binding-based inspection.

Question 146

An API emits `{"enabled":true,"retry":3,"owner":null,"label":"R01"}`. The network automation client must parse types without turning a Boolean or null into the same kind of string as the label. Which description is correct?

  1. The number 3 is Boolean because it is used as a retry flag.
  2. enabled is Boolean, retry is numeric, owner is null and label is a string.
  3. Parse quoted JSON member names as proof that their numeric, boolean and null values must all be strings.
  4. Interpret the JSON null token as the character sequence "null" and treat it as a populated text value.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

JSON distinguishes true/false Boolean literals, numeric tokens, null and quoted strings. The parser should preserve these types in the API's data contract.

Incorrect Answers

A:

JSON numeric 3 is not the Boolean true even if nonzero integers can be truthy in some programming languages. A typed API should not conflate them.

C:

JSON member names are strings, but values retain their own types; true, 3 and null are not automatically quoted text.

D:

The JSON null literal represents absence of a value, distinct from the string containing four letters.

Question 147

A route table displays `O 10.99.0.0/16 [110/25] via 192.0.2.6`. What do the bracketed figures represent for this OSPF entry?

  1. Read [110/25] as an OSPF distance/metric tuple but swap which number represents administrative distance.
  2. Assume the second bracketed value represents seconds since the last OSPF Hello rather than the route metric.
  3. Administrative distance 110 followed by routing metric 25.
  4. Network mask length 110 followed by host count 25.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

In common Cisco IOS routing-table display, brackets show administrative distance and metric. OSPF normally has AD 110 and here accumulated route cost 25.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cisco route display commonly uses [AD/metric], so 110 is OSPF administrative distance and 25 is cost in this entry.

B:

Neighbor timers and routing-table metric are different operational fields; [110/25] expresses distance and route cost.

D:

IPv4 prefix length cannot be 110 bits, and the /16 already identifies this route's mask. The bracketed values are route preference attributes.

Question 148

A hospital perimeter must distinguish permitted applications and block intrusion signatures in traffic passing between zones. Traditional IP/port filters alone cannot satisfy its inspection requirement. Which function should be introduced?

  1. A next-generation firewall with application-aware policy and inline IPS inspection.
  2. A passive SPAN collector that cannot drop malicious flows inline.
  3. Enable IDS monitoring on a SPAN port and expect that observation alone to prevent matching malicious packets inline.
  4. Use only a stateful firewall rule allowing the whole application without any inspection for the prohibited intrusion signature.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An NGFW can classify applications and enforce richer zone policy, with inline intrusion prevention capable of actively stopping matched attacks when configured.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A passive sensor can observe and alert on suspicious patterns, but it does not sit in the forwarding path to block attacks. The requirement explicitly calls for inline enforcement.

C:

A passive IDS can alert on intrusion signatures but cannot physically drop traffic without an enforcement path.

D:

Stateful service policy can filter connections, but an explicit IPS inspection rule is needed for recognized malicious payload patterns.

Question 149

An administrator sees `switchport mode access` on the uplink between two switches even though multiple VLANs need to cross. What condition should be verified first?

  1. Add VLAN 30 to the switch’s VLAN database but leave the interswitch uplink configured as a single-VLAN access port.
  2. Increase its access VLAN number until all VLANs fit.
  3. Set the uplink’s native VLAN to 30 while retaining switchport mode access on the link.
  4. Change the interswitch interface to a properly configured trunk and verify allowed VLANs and native VLAN consistency.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An access port generally carries one data VLAN untagged. A trunk is needed for multiple 802.1Q VLANs over the interswitch link, with permitted VLAN list and native handling checked.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Creating the VLAN does not make one access link carry the multiple tagged VLANs required between switches.

B:

Access VLAN numbering does not create multiple simultaneous tagged VLAN mappings. Increasing a numeric ID simply changes which single VLAN uses the access link.

C:

Native VLAN is a trunk-specific property; an access port still does not carry the requested multivlan tagged traffic.

Question 150

A facilities contractor needs occasional physical access to a locked wiring closet. Security policy requires preventing unauthorized changes to production switches. Which program control is most relevant?

  1. Allow unknown visitors to share a network operator's administrative login.
  2. Enforce badge-authorized closet entry with access logs and supervised contractor procedures.
  3. Publish the wiring closet door code in the building's guest Wi-Fi welcome page.
  4. Disable switch port security globally so the contractor can attach any device.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Physical access controls, visitor management and audit logs reduce the chance that unauthorized people can reach cable plant and network devices. Contractor permissions should be explicit and time bounded.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared administrative accounts erase individual accountability and do not verify that a physical visitor is approved for a wiring closet. Access must be controlled and traceable.

C:

Making the entry code public undermines the security boundary and allows anyone viewing guest information to enter sensitive infrastructure areas.

D:

Port security protects certain Layer 2 attachment risks but does not authorize physical contractor access. Disabling it broadly weakens endpoint control.


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