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Last Update: Sep 27, 2026

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 17

Question 160

Four routers elect an OSPF broadcast-network DR together. Router A has interface priority 10; B 20; C 5; and D 0. All otherwise eligible and reachable. Which router wins the initial DR preference?

  1. Router B with priority 20.
  2. Router A because its name comes first alphabetically.
  3. Router C because the lowest positive priority is best.
  4. Router D because priority zero indicates special importance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Eligible OSPF DR elections consider the highest interface priority before router ID tie breakers. Router B outranks A and C, while D is ineligible at zero.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Router names are not selection inputs for DR election. With unequal priority values, a name-based ordering is irrelevant.

C:

Unlike an OSPF path cost, interface priority favors the higher configured value during DR selection. Priority 5 does not beat 20.

D:

A priority-zero interface may participate in the segment but cannot be elected DR/BDR. Zero is an exclusion, not a highest rank.

Question 161

A new department VLAN needs 45 client IPv4 addresses plus a default gateway interface and reserves two addresses for future devices. What is the smallest ordinary subnet mask that can provide 48 usable hosts?

  1. /28 with 14 usable IPv4 host addresses.
  2. /27 with 30 usable IPv4 host addresses.
  3. /25 with 126 usable addresses despite the smaller /26 fitting.
  4. /26 with 62 usable IPv4 host addresses.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A /26 supplies 64 total addresses and normally 62 usable hosts, enough for 48 required interfaces. It is smaller than a /25 and avoids unnecessary allocation waste.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A /28 supplies 16 total addresses and 14 usable, far below the stated VLAN requirement. Adding more DHCP leases cannot increase subnet capacity.

B:

A /27 supplies only 30 ordinary usable addresses, which cannot fit the 48 required devices including gateway and reserved hosts.

C:

A /25 would fit but wastes a larger address block. The question asks for the minimum fitting prefix, and /26 is sufficient.

Question 162

A wireless controller has two 1-Gb Ethernet uplinks to a distribution switch. The design supports link aggregation and wants them treated as one logical uplink for capacity and redundancy. Which configuration fits?

  1. Create separate default routes on WLAN clients and leave the physical links unbundled.
  2. Configure a compatible LAG or port channel on the controller and switch according to platform support.
  3. Configure both uplinks as unrelated access ports in conflicting VLANs.
  4. Set different native VLANs on the controller's two bundle members.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A supported WLC LAG and matching switch-side EtherChannel combine compatible member links into a logical connection. Configuration must match controller support and VLAN requirements.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Client IP default routes are separate from how the controller's physical uplinks aggregate. Changing client gateways does not produce a logical Ethernet bundle.

C:

Unrelated access ports cannot be assumed to aggregate controller traffic consistently and may create unwanted VLAN or loop conditions. They do not implement the requested logical uplink.

D:

A bundle requires consistent VLAN and member parameters. Conflicting native VLANs can break aggregation or misclassify untagged controller management frames.

Question 163

A router must reach the remote IPv6 network 2001:db8:44:8000::/64 through adjacent next hop 2001:db8:44:1::2. Which static routing command expresses the intent?

  1. `ip route 2001:db8:44:8000::/64 2001:db8:44:1::2`.
  2. `ipv6 address 2001:db8:44:8000::/64` on the local LAN to discover the remote route.
  3. `ipv6 route 2001:db8:44:8000::/64 2001:db8:44:1::2`.
  4. `ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:44:1::2` if only that /64 must be matched.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

IOS IPv6 static route syntax names the remote prefix and an appropriate IPv6 next hop; ensure the next hop resolves through the connected segment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

IPv4 `ip route` expects IPv4 network syntax and cannot directly express these IPv6 literal prefixes and neighbors. The IPv6 command family is required.

B:

Assigning a remote destination prefix to a local interface may create an incorrect connected network rather than a static path through the existing next-hop router.

D:

A default ::/0 route would forward every otherwise unmatched IPv6 destination, not just the specified remote /64. It is unnecessarily broad for this requirement.

Question 164

A branch edge has two outbound QoS policies. One traffic class has a strict rate cap with excess packets dropped, while another temporarily buffers bursts and transmits them later. Which pairing is correct?

  1. Policing enforces the cap by dropping/remarking excess; shaping queues and delays excess traffic.
  2. Both techniques simply choose OSPF routes based on interface bandwidth.
  3. Both techniques change VLAN membership rather than traffic rate.
  4. Shaping always drops every conforming packet; policing stores excess in an unlimited queue.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A policer measures traffic against a rate and can drop or remark excess; a shaper normally smooths bursts using buffering and scheduling. Both require suitable traffic classification.

Incorrect Answers

B:

OSPF cost can influence which path carries traffic but does not implement per-class token-bucket policing or shaping rate controls.

C:

VLAN segmentation separates Layer 2 broadcast domains and does not alone enforce a transmit-rate profile for packets traversing an egress queue.

D:

This reverses the normal differences: shaping is associated with queuing and delaying bursts, whereas policing can discard or remark traffic beyond the configured profile.

Question 165

A Cisco IOS switch has both an older `enable password` (encoded by `service password-encryption`) and a new strong `enable secret` configured. An administrator now enters privileged EXEC mode with the `enable` command. Which credential normally takes precedence on a supported IOS image?

  1. The line vty password takes precedence, because entering enable always reuses the initial remote-login credential.
  2. The two credentials must be typed in sequence, with the type-7 password verified before the one-way secret can be accepted.
  3. The reversible enable password takes precedence because service password-encryption causes it to override the hashed secret.
  4. The configured `enable secret` is normally preferred for privileged EXEC authentication; the old `enable password` does not override it.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

On supported IOS, enable secret has priority when both legacy enable password and enable secret are present. The one-way verifier protects privileged access more appropriately than reversible encoding; confirm the platform hashing implementation and retire the old credential under change control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Line VTY credentials authenticate remote management access but are separate from the privileged EXEC enable credential. IOS normally checks the configured enable secret for escalation when both enable password and enable secret exist, rather than reusing a VTY password.

B:

IOS does not generally require a two-stage chain combining enable password and enable secret. When enable secret is supported and configured, it normally takes precedence; retaining the older password does not become an additional factor.

C:

Service password-encryption commonly hides old enable password text with reversible type-7 encoding. It does not make that credential cryptographically stronger or change the documented priority of a configured enable secret for privileged mode.

Question 166

A REST inventory service returns 201 after creating an object, 204 after deleting another object, and 200 for a normal GET. Which interpretation matches common HTTP semantics?

  1. 204 guarantees the server returns a JSON body containing the deleted record.
  2. 201 indicates created, 204 successful without response content, and 200 successful response.
  3. 201 means authentication failed, 204 means server error, and 200 means redirect.
  4. All three are network failures requiring retry.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

HTTP 2xx status codes indicate success classes; 201 is common on resource creation, 204 means no response content, and 200 may return a normal representation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

By definition 204 No Content does not contain a representation body. A client expecting JSON from 204 will mishandle an otherwise successful operation.

C:

Authentication denial typically uses 401 or 403; 5xx codes represent server errors. These 2xx responses have different success semantics, not the asserted failures.

D:

Different 2xx codes are distinct forms of successful processing and should not all trigger blind retry, which could duplicate resource creation.

Question 167

A campus router advertises a connected user LAN in OSPF but has `passive-interface` configured on that LAN. A student expects an OSPF neighbor on the user-facing port and sees none. What does passive interface accomplish?

  1. Disable IP routing for the user subnet entirely.
  2. Block all DHCP responses from the LAN hosts.
  3. Suppress OSPF Hello neighbor formation on that interface while still advertising the connected prefix when applicable.
  4. Change the default gateway MAC to an HSRP virtual MAC.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Passive interfaces avoid establishing OSPF neighbor adjacencies on ports where no router neighbor is intended. The connected subnet can still be advertised by the OSPF process.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Passive OSPF affects protocol Hellos and adjacency on the interface, not ordinary data-plane forwarding to users. Their IP gateway can remain functional.

B:

DHCP filtering uses snooping/ACL mechanisms, not OSPF passive-interface control. Client address allocation can continue independently of routing-protocol neighbor formation.

D:

HSRP is a separate first-hop redundancy protocol and is not enabled by an OSPF passive-interface command. No virtual gateway MAC change follows automatically.

Question 168

A marketing team asks that a WLAN's SSID not appear in normal beacon discovery. A manager incorrectly calls the hidden SSID a form of Wi-Fi encryption. What clarification is accurate?

  1. SSID discovery visibility is separate from WPA2/WPA3 authentication and link encryption.
  2. A client can never discover a hidden SSID by observing wireless traffic.
  3. Disabling broadcast is equivalent to configuring 802.1X authentication.
  4. A hidden SSID means every transmitted data frame uses AES automatically.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The SSID identifies a WLAN network name, while encryption and client authentication depend on configured security protocols. Concealing ordinary beacon naming does not provide cryptographic protection.

Incorrect Answers

B:

SSID information can be inferred through other association and probing exchanges, so hidden beacon naming is not a strong secrecy control.

C:

802.1X involves authentication exchange and a backend identity policy. Suppressing SSID broadcast does not configure or enforce enterprise credentials.

D:

Hiding a network name does not establish encryption keys or select AES-CCMP; an open hidden network can still carry unprotected traffic.

Question 169

A newly installed multilayer switch has VLAN interfaces 15 and 25 configured and users can ping their own SVI. Inter-VLAN traffic fails because Layer 3 routing was never enabled. What configuration is required?

  1. Disable the SVI for VLAN 25 to reduce route table size.
  2. Force both VLANs to use the same IP subnet despite separation.
  3. Configure an additional default route toward the distribution network but keep ip routing disabled on the multilayer switch.
  4. Enable IP routing on the supported Layer 3 switch after verifying both SVIs and addressing.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Routing between distinct SVIs requires the device to perform Layer 3 forwarding. The necessary command activates that function on capable IOS switching platforms.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing a configured gateway makes one VLAN less connected, not better routed. Both valid SVIs are necessary for direct inter-VLAN routes.

B:

Overlapping subnet allocations confuse IP gateway and ARP assumptions and do not correctly enable inter-VLAN Layer 3 communication.

C:

A default route affects next-hop selection only after Layer 3 forwarding is enabled; the switch cannot route between its VLAN interfaces with global routing disabled.

Question 170

A numbered extended ACL contains two explicit permit entries but no final deny line. A technician asks whether other unmatched traffic is accepted by default. Which rule applies?

  1. An ACL only operates when an interface has no default gateway.
  2. An implicit deny at the end rejects packets that match none of the permit statements.
  3. An implicit permit forwards every unmentioned flow.
  4. ACL evaluation begins with the last line and then moves upward.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cisco ACLs use ordered first-match evaluation and an implicit deny for unmatched traffic. Add explicit permits for necessary flows before applying the policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Interface gateway configuration affects routing reachability but does not control the implicit deny semantics of an applied ACL.

C:

An unmatched packet is not implicitly allowed simply because administrators omitted a textual deny entry. The default tail behavior is deny.

D:

ACL entries are processed top to bottom until the first match. Reverse evaluation would produce very different permit/deny outcomes and is not the normal rule.


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