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Last Update: Sep 27, 2026

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 20

Question 190

An ACL applied inbound to a user VLAN has `deny ip any any` as sequence 10 and `permit tcp 10.10.5.0 0.0.0.255 host 192.0.2.50 eq 443` as sequence 20. Users cannot reach HTTPS. What must change?

  1. Add another identical HTTPS permit after the current deny.
  2. Place the specific HTTPS permit before the broad any-any deny.
  3. Keep deny first but change the HTTPS destination port to 80.
  4. Increase the ACL's name length so later entries are evaluated.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cisco ACLs use first matching entry. A broad deny at the top matches every packet, making the later permit unreachable; reorder or narrow it deliberately.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A duplicate permit after an unconditional deny remains unreachable. The ordering problem must be fixed before the specific permitted flow can match.

C:

Changing HTTPS to TCP 80 would match ordinary HTTP, not the required destination port 443, and still would not bypass the earlier unconditional deny.

D:

ACL name text is not part of packet matching and cannot affect whether execution reaches a later line after an earlier deny.

Question 191

An administrator wants to determine whether an OSPFv2 neighbor on Gi0/0 is FULL or stuck in EXSTART after a software upgrade. Which operational command is most direct?

  1. Use show ip ospf interface to verify that the area and timers match, then infer FULL state without inspecting the actual neighbor state.
  2. Inspect only show ip protocols to verify OSPF is enabled globally without checking the per-neighbor adjacency table.
  3. `show ip ospf neighbor` and inspect the state beside the neighbor ID and interface.
  4. Inspect only the OSPF routing table and infer that every listed route requires the specified peer to be in FULL state.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The OSPF neighbor display records adjacency state, peer identifier and interface, directly distinguishing Full from Exstart or Exchange symptoms.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Area and timer compatibility are prerequisites but a peer can still be in EXSTART due to other problems. Show ip ospf neighbor directly displays the live peer state.

B:

A running OSPF process does not prove an individual peer is FULL. The neighbor summary reveals peer ID, adjacency state and affected interface.

D:

Routes can survive through alternate neighbors even while one adjacency is down. Check show ip ospf neighbor for the actual peer state.

Question 192

A technician is asked to run a standard copper Ethernet access link 175 meters through an electrically noisy plant without repeaters or optical media. What cabling limitation matters?

  1. Conventional twisted-pair Ethernet runs are commonly limited to about 100 meters and may suffer EMI in this environment.
  2. Copper length does not matter as long as both switches use /24 addressing.
  3. Ethernet copper signaling is identical to long-distance single-mode optical fiber.
  4. Cat6 twisted pair guarantees 10-kilometer reach regardless of interference.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Ordinary structured copper Ethernet channels have bounded reach, commonly 100 meters for mainstream copper access links. Long noisy runs may need fiber or intermediate approved infrastructure.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Subnet masks are Layer 3 settings and cannot fix attenuation or noise on an overlong copper physical link.

C:

Optical fiber uses light and has different media reach and noise characteristics. Twisted pair is not equivalent to single-mode optics simply because both carry Ethernet frames.

D:

A category cable designation does not remove PHY reach limits or electromagnetic effects over kilometers. High speeds may have additional distance restrictions.

Question 193

A controller-managed AP in a hotel should serve normal client WLAN traffic and remain under WLC policy control. The team is selecting AP operational mode. Which one is most appropriate?

  1. Monitor mode with no ordinary client serving on the radio.
  2. Sniffer mode that captures over-the-air packets for an analyzer only.
  3. A permanently disconnected AP with no supported client-data mode.
  4. Local AP mode for normal client service under the controller.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Local mode is a common centrally controlled AP operating mode that serves client associations and carries their traffic according to the controller architecture.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Monitor mode observes radio conditions and threats, often without serving normal wireless data clients. It does not meet the guest association requirement.

B:

Sniffer mode is intended for packet capture and troubleshooting rather than the ordinary production WLAN client connectivity requested.

C:

Disconnection may trigger a supported resilience feature in some AP modes, but an undefined offline state is not the intended managed normal client service.

Question 194

A Cisco router's WAN interface should obtain its IPv4 address and default route options from the upstream provider's DHCP service. Which setting/verification is relevant?

  1. Configure `ipv6 address autoconfig` to request an IPv4 lease.
  2. Configure the interface as a DHCP client and inspect its learned address and negotiated route information.
  3. Create a local DHCP server pool on that WAN interface only.
  4. Set `switchport mode trunk` as the only WAN configuration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An IOS interface can be configured to request IPv4 settings via DHCP when supported. Verify the assigned address, lease and any installed default route behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration is separate from DHCP for IPv4 addresses. It cannot obtain an IPv4 address lease by itself.

C:

A local DHCP server offers leases to other clients; it does not cause the router interface itself to request and accept the provider's IPv4 assignment.

D:

A VLAN trunk changes Layer 2 tagging and does not automatically initiate DHCP address acquisition on the routed WAN interface.

Question 195

A company wants the same switch access policy on 200 campus devices. One team proposes configuring each switch independently, while another uses a controller that distributes reviewed intent. Which advantage does the controller approach provide?

  1. Every data packet must pass through the controller's management database.
  2. A controller automatically repairs all physical fiber failures by software policy.
  3. Centralized, consistent policy definition and push with verification across managed devices.
  4. Centralized control removes the need to verify changes on the switches.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Controller-based management can deploy common policy across many compatible devices and collect compliance evidence, reducing manual drift. The data plane can still forward locally.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Controllers program or monitor forwarding devices; they are not necessarily in the path of every user frame. That would confuse control and data planes.

B:

Hardware signal failures require media repair or redundant topology. Software controllers cannot restore broken optical fibers simply by changing intent.

D:

Centralized orchestration still needs result validation and rollback capability. A policy push can fail or reach only part of the fleet.

Question 196

A router has three active static network routes and several OSPF routes. The engineer wants to list only the installed static entries to check their next hops after a cutover. Which command is best?

  1. `show ip route static`, inspecting static destinations and next-hop information.
  2. `show mac address-table`, which lists Ethernet destinations.
  3. `show interfaces status`, which lists link health instead of routes.
  4. `show ip ospf neighbor`, which lists only OSPF peers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cisco IOS routing table filtering by static source helps verify which manually configured IPv4 routes are currently installed and their forwarding targets.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A switch MAC table maps destination MACs to VLAN ports, not route prefixes or next-hop IPs.

C:

Interface status helps identify failed links but does not list installed routes by static source. It is complementary to the routing table.

D:

OSPF neighbor output shows adjacency relationships and states but cannot enumerate all configured or installed static IPv4 routes.

Question 197

A wireless controller's staff WLAN uses WPA2-Personal but some clients associate to the wrong VLAN because the WLAN policy maps to an obsolete dynamic interface. What should be corrected?

  1. Reduce the WPA2 key length until clients move to the intended VLAN.
  2. Change only the SSID name while keeping the obsolete VLAN mapping.
  3. Enable every SSID on every AP without reviewing VLAN mappings.
  4. Bind the secured WLAN profile to the approved VLAN/interface and verify the PSK policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

WLAN-to-interface mapping determines which wired client network receives associated traffic. Security settings and VLAN placement must both be correct for staff access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

PSK strength affects authentication security, not which wired VLAN the controller selects after successful association. Weakening it creates risk.

B:

Renaming an SSID changes the network's advertised label but does not alter where controller forwarding sends client frames.

C:

Broadcasting more WLANs across APs increases coverage but does not repair a specific dynamic interface/VLAN mapping that sends staff clients to the wrong subnet.

Question 198

A new router uplink uses a fixed speed and duplex on one end but the other side only autonegotiates, and the link falls to an unexpected rate with interface warnings. Which investigation should be prioritized?

  1. Compare only the local interface configured speed and duplex but do not inspect what the connected peer actually negotiates.
  2. Compare both ends' supported speed/duplex settings and negotiation results, then align them appropriately.
  3. Replace the Ethernet cable while leaving a known forced/autonegotiated duplex mismatch unexplored at both ends.
  4. Increase the switchport MTU without checking whether either endpoint negotiates the configured speed and duplex.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Ethernet link negotiation needs compatible physical parameters. Mismatch can produce reduced speed, duplex anomalies or errors before routing is involved.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The two endpoints can disagree even when the local setting looks correct. This mismatch requires checking both advertised and operating link modes and counters.

C:

Media replacement can resolve physical faults but will not by itself correct incompatible negotiation settings. Compare actual operating duplex and speed on both ends first.

D:

MTU changes frame-size acceptance, not how the ports select duplex or speed. The reported symptom is linked to negotiated physical operating modes.

Question 199

A small router has one Ethernet physical link to a switch trunk carrying VLAN 110 and VLAN 120. It must serve as the default gateway for both subnetworks. Which interface design is appropriate?

  1. Configure one untagged IPv4 address only and expect both tagged VLANs to route automatically.
  2. Enable port security instead of creating gateway interfaces.
  3. Use separate router subinterfaces with 802.1Q encapsulation tags and respective gateway IP addresses.
  4. Turn the switch trunk into a single access VLAN and leave both VLANs separate on the router.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Router-on-a-stick uses a physical trunk with one Layer 3 subinterface per routed VLAN. Dot1Q tagging associates each gateway with its VLAN frames.

Incorrect Answers

A:

One untagged address supplies only one logical Layer 3 interface and cannot distinguish the two tagged VLAN subnetworks without subinterfaces or other routed interfaces.

B:

Port security constrains Layer 2 MAC usage on switchports and does not perform IP inter-VLAN routing or configure router subinterface addresses.

D:

Changing the link to a single access VLAN would remove the intended carriage of two isolated VLANs, preventing both gateway subinterfaces from receiving frames.

Question 200

An OSPF adjacency is unstable on one routed link, and the operator suspects the two sides use different OSPF network types. Which command helps inspect the interface network type and timers?

  1. `show ip ospf interface` for the affected link.
  2. Use show ip ospf neighbor alone and expect its adjacency state to print the configured network type for each local interface.
  3. Use show ip interface brief to confirm that both interfaces are up, then assume their OSPF network types must match.
  4. `show ip route static` only.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The OSPF interface view reports network type, Hello/Dead intervals, cost, state and neighbor-related context needed for this mismatch investigation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The neighbor view is useful for identifying the failing peer, but show ip ospf interface is the direct source for local OSPF network type and timers.

C:

IP and physical interface status do not include OSPF broadcast/point-to-point network-type configuration. Inspect the protocol-specific interface details.

D:

Static route views do not report OSPF interface network type or Hello exchange parameters. Route entries may exist even when that interface is misconfigured.


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