Fortinet NSE8_812 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

If an SD-WAN network experiences a download traffic rate of 500 Mbps and an 8% packet loss rate, what is the Forward Error Correction (FEC) behavior in terms of redundant packets sent for base packets?

A. 1 redundant packet for every 10 base packets
B. 3 redundant packets for every 5 base packets
C. 2 redundant packets for every 8 base packets
D. 3 redundant packets for every 9 base packets

Answer: C

Explanation:

Forward Error Correction (FEC) is a vital technique used in network communications to maintain data integrity, especially in environments prone to packet loss, such as SD-WAN networks. The core idea behind FEC is to send extra redundant packets along with the original data packets. These redundant packets provide the receiver with enough information to recover any lost or corrupted packets without needing retransmissions, thus improving reliability and efficiency.

In this scenario, the network has a 500 Mbps download rate with 8% packet loss. To compensate for this loss, FEC sends redundant packets proportionally. Specifically, the system must send enough redundant packets to cover the expected 8% loss rate so that the original data can be reconstructed at the receiving end.

The standard approach is to establish a ratio between base packets (original packets) and redundant packets. For an 8% packet loss, a typical and effective ratio is 2 redundant packets for every 8 base packets. This setup provides sufficient redundancy without excessive overhead, enabling the network to recover lost data smoothly.

Looking at other options:

• Option A (1 redundant per 10 base packets) offers too little redundancy for 8% packet loss, making data recovery unreliable.

• Option B (3 redundant per 5 base packets) provides more redundancy than necessary, causing unnecessary bandwidth consumption.

• Option D (3 redundant per 9 base packets) also provides more redundancy than typically required for 8% loss and doesn’t align with standard FEC ratios.
  
  

Thus, option C correctly balances redundancy with network efficiency, ensuring reliable data transmission despite packet loss.

Question 2:

While running a continuous diagnostic command on a platform using NP6 during traffic flow, you receive output information. 

Which two statements accurately describe this output? (Choose two.)

A. Enabling bandwidth control between ISF and NP will change the output
B. The output shows a packet descriptor queue accumulated counter
C. Enabling the HPE shaper for NP6 will change the output
D. Host-shortcut mode is enabled
E. Packet drops are occurring at the XAUI interface

Answer: B, E

Explanation:

The NP6 (Network Processor 6) platform is a high-performance network processing unit often used in advanced network devices to handle packet processing and traffic management efficiently. When running diagnostic commands on such a platform, the output typically provides insight into packet handling performance, including queue statuses, packet drops, and interface issues.

Statement B refers to the output showing a "packet descriptor queue accumulated counter." Packet descriptor queues manage metadata about packets waiting to be processed or transmitted. An accumulated counter indicates the number of packets currently queued or processed, helping monitor congestion or bottlenecks within the NP6. This diagnostic output is consistent with what an NP6 platform would report.

Statement E points to packet drops occurring at the XAUI interface. XAUI (10 Gigabit Attachment Unit Interface) connects high-speed Ethernet physical layers to the network processor. Packet drops at this interface usually suggest congestion, buffer overflow, or hardware issues, all critical metrics captured in diagnostic outputs to inform troubleshooting.

The other options are less relevant in this diagnostic context:

• Option A discusses bandwidth control between ISF (Interface Switching Fabric) and NP, which could influence traffic flow but does not directly relate to the immediate counters seen in this output.

• Option C refers to enabling the HPE (High-Performance Ethernet) shaper, which manages traffic shaping and rate control but does not typically alter diagnostic counters about queues or XAUI drops immediately.

• Option D mentions host-shortcut mode, a configuration affecting traffic paths but unrelated to the specific diagnostic output concerning packet queues and drops.

Therefore, options B and E best describe the nature of the diagnostic output observed on the NP6 platform.

Question 3:

Which two methods does FortiSIEM support for importing user-created Lookup Table Data? (Select two.)

A. Report
B. FTP
C. API
D. SCP

Answer: B, C

Explanation:

FortiSIEM offers several ways to import user-defined Lookup Table Data, which is crucial for enriching and correlating event data effectively. When handling sizable or frequently updated datasets, selecting reliable and efficient import methods is important.

Let’s analyze the options:

• A. Report: Reports in FortiSIEM primarily generate summaries or insights about system data and events. They are not intended for importing lookup tables, so this method is unsupported for that purpose.

• B. FTP (File Transfer Protocol): FTP is a supported method for importing Lookup Table Data. It allows files containing lookup information to be transferred securely to the FortiSIEM system. FTP is particularly suitable when dealing with large datasets or scheduled batch imports.

• C. API (Application Programming Interface): The API is also supported and offers a programmatic way to import lookup tables. This method enables automation and real-time integration with external systems or scripts, allowing dynamic and timely updates to lookup data.

• D. SCP (Secure Copy Protocol): Although SCP is a secure file transfer protocol, FortiSIEM does not utilize SCP specifically for importing user-defined lookup tables. It’s not recognized as a standard import method for this data within FortiSIEM.

In conclusion, the correct methods for importing user-defined Lookup Table Data into FortiSIEM are FTP and API. These methods provide flexible, secure, and efficient options to maintain and update lookup data critical for event analysis and correlation.

Question 4:

What advantage does FortiGate NAC LAN Segmentation provide in a network environment?

A. Enables multiple DHCP servers within a single VLAN
B. Offers physical isolation of hosts without altering their IP addresses
C. Supports IGMP snooping among hosts in the same VLAN
D. Allows dynamic assignment of address objects based on NAC policies

Answer: B

Explanation:

FortiGate NAC (Network Access Control) LAN Segments are designed to enhance network security by segmenting traffic and isolating devices without the need to modify their existing IP addresses. This capability is especially valuable when administrators need to enforce security policies by physically separating devices according to role, trust level, or risk profile, while maintaining consistent IP configurations.

Why B is correct:
Physical isolation without changing the hosts’ IP addresses is the primary benefit of NAC LAN Segmentation. This means devices can be grouped and controlled in separate segments to limit communication or access without disrupting the network addressing scheme. It simplifies network management because IP addresses do not need to be reconfigured when enforcing security policies, reducing potential network downtime or complexity.

Reviewing other choices:

• A. Multiple DHCP servers within one VLAN: Although FortiGate supports DHCP services, managing multiple DHCP servers in the same VLAN is not the core function of NAC LAN Segments. The focus of NAC LAN Segments is on isolation and security rather than DHCP configuration.

• C. IGMP snooping support: IGMP snooping manages multicast traffic, and while FortiGate devices might support it, this feature is unrelated to NAC LAN Segments’ role in host isolation.

• D. Dynamic address object assignment: Although FortiGate can assign dynamic address objects to enforce NAC policies, this is part of policy management rather than the fundamental benefit of NAC LAN Segments. The main advantage lies in physical isolation without IP address changes.

In summary, FortiGate NAC LAN Segments enable administrators to physically isolate devices for security purposes without having to alter their IP addresses, facilitating easier and safer network segmentation.

Question 5:

You are investigating why outgoing emails are not being delivered from a FortiMail Cloud service integrated with Office 365. 

What are two possible causes for this problem? (Select two.)

A. The FortiMail access control rule allowing relay from Office 365 server FQDN is missing
B. The FortiMail DKIM key was not configured using the Auto Generation option
C. The FortiMail access control rules permitting relay from Office 365 public IP addresses are missing
D. A Mail Flow connector in the Exchange Admin Center is not properly configured to the FortiMail Cloud FQDN

Correct Answers: A and C

Explanation:

When troubleshooting email delivery failures for outgoing messages in a FortiMail Cloud and Office 365 integration, it is critical to ensure proper relay permissions and routing configurations are in place.

Option A is a key factor. FortiMail controls which servers can relay mail through it using access control rules based on Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDN). If the rule that permits the Office 365 servers’ FQDN to relay messages through FortiMail is absent, outbound emails from Office 365 will be blocked, causing delivery failure. This missing relay permission directly interrupts the flow of outbound mail, making this a common root cause.

Option C addresses a similar issue but from the IP address perspective. Office 365 servers use specific public IP addresses to send mail. FortiMail needs explicit access control rules allowing these IPs to relay mail. Without these rules, FortiMail will reject or block outgoing mail requests from Office 365 IPs. Hence, missing these IP-based relay rules will also cause outgoing mail failures.

Option B, regarding the DKIM key not being auto-generated, is less likely to cause outright delivery failures. DKIM is important for authenticating mail and preventing spoofing but generally does not prevent mail from being sent. Even if DKIM is misconfigured, emails often still go through unless other issues exist.

Option D involves Mail Flow connectors in Office 365, which primarily manage incoming mail routing. Improper connector configuration usually affects inbound mail, not outbound mail. Therefore, this is an unlikely cause for outgoing mail delivery issues.

In summary, the absence of relay permissions in FortiMail for Office 365 servers by FQDN and IP address (A and C) are the most probable reasons why outgoing emails are not delivered, as they directly block relay capability from Office 365 through FortiMail.

Question 6:

A FortiManager device uses a Jinja script in its CLI templates, as shown in the exhibit. 

Which two statements accurately describe how this template will behave when executed? (Select two.)

A. The Jinja template automatically assigns the interface with the “WAN” role on the managed FortiGate.
B. The template will function correctly if the variable format is changed to $(WAN).
C. The template will work properly if the variable format is changed to {{ WAN }}.
D. The administrator must manually map the interface for each device using a meta field.
E. The template will fail because this configuration requires CLI or TCL scripting instead.

Correct Answers: C and D

Explanation:

Jinja is a powerful templating language used in FortiManager to automate device configurations efficiently. Understanding how variable substitution and mapping work in this context is crucial.

Option C is correct because Jinja syntax requires variables to be enclosed within double curly braces, like {{ WAN }}. This notation tells the template engine to replace the placeholder with the actual variable value during processing. Without this syntax, the template will not interpret the variable correctly, causing errors or misconfigurations.

Option D is also accurate. While the template defines variable placeholders, FortiManager needs to know how these variables map to actual interfaces on each managed FortiGate device. This requires the administrator to manually map each device’s physical or logical interfaces to the meta fields (like WAN) in FortiManager. This mapping ensures the correct interfaces receive the intended configuration during template deployment.

Option A is incorrect because Jinja templates do not perform automatic interface role mapping. Without explicit meta field mappings set by the administrator, the template cannot assign roles like “WAN” by itself.

Option B is wrong because the syntax $(WAN) is not valid in Jinja templates; this format is typically used in shell scripting but is not recognized by Jinja. Using this syntax would cause the template to fail or misinterpret variables.

Option E is false because FortiManager explicitly supports Jinja templates within CLI templates, making CLI or TCL scripting unnecessary for this purpose. The template will work fine if correctly written and variables mapped.

In conclusion, correctly using Jinja’s {{ variable }} syntax and manually mapping device interfaces via meta fields are essential for the successful application of CLI templates in FortiManager, making C and D the correct choices.

Question 7:

You have an SD-WAN configured on a FortiGate device. You notice that DNS resolution times become very slow when one of the internet links experiences high latency. 

To ensure DNS queries are resolved as quickly as possible with minimal configuration effort, what should you do?

A. Set local outgoing traffic to use the outgoing interface based on SD-WAN rules with a manually assigned IP linked to a loopback interface, then create an SD-WAN rule from the loopback to the DNS server.
B. Create an SD-WAN rule targeting the DNS server and use FortiGate interface IPs as the source addresses.
C. Configure two DNS servers, selecting those recommended by the two different internet service providers.
D. Set local outgoing traffic to use the outgoing interface based on SD-WAN rules with the interface IP, then create an SD-WAN rule to the DNS server.

Answer: C

Explanation:

In SD-WAN environments where multiple internet links exist, latency on one link can cause delays in DNS query responses if the FortiGate relies on a single DNS server associated with that slow link. DNS resolution is critical for smooth network operations, so optimizing it is essential. The most efficient and straightforward approach is to configure two DNS servers—one from each internet service provider (ISP) involved in the SD-WAN.

By having DNS servers from both ISPs configured, the FortiGate can dynamically choose the DNS server reachable with the lowest latency, thereby reducing delays. If one link experiences high latency or goes down, the FortiGate can seamlessly query the DNS server over the other link, ensuring high availability and faster resolution times. This method provides redundancy and leverages the SD-WAN’s multi-link architecture without complex manual routing configurations.

The other options introduce unnecessary complexity. Option A’s use of a loopback interface with manual IPs and SD-WAN rules adds layers that are not needed to address DNS latency issues. Option B, creating SD-WAN rules specifying source IPs for DNS traffic, requires more fine-tuning and risks inefficient routing if not carefully managed. Option D is similar but still doesn’t offer the redundancy and simplicity of simply using multiple DNS servers.

In summary, option C is the most effective and least labor-intensive way to ensure fast, reliable DNS resolution on a FortiGate SD-WAN setup by leveraging multiple DNS servers recommended by each ISP.

Question 8:

In a Fortinet Security Fabric setup with three FortiGate devices, FGT_2 is configured with a custom setup while FGT_1 and FGT_3 retain default configurations. 

Considering the synchronization of fabric objects like address groups and policies, which statement accurately describes the synchronization behavior?

A. Objects from FGT_2 will synchronize upstream to the FortiGate device above it.
B. The root FortiGate will synchronize objects only to FGT_2.
C. The root FortiGate will not synchronize objects to any downstream FortiGate devices.
D. The root FortiGate will synchronize objects only to FGT_3.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Fortinet Security Fabric architecture is hierarchical, where one FortiGate serves as the root, managing and synchronizing configuration data and fabric objects to downstream devices. These fabric objects include firewall addresses, address groups, policies, and other security configurations that need to be consistent across devices.

Typically, synchronization flows downstream from the root FortiGate to other connected FortiGates to maintain a unified security posture. Upstream synchronization (from downstream devices back to the root) is generally not supported because it could introduce conflicts and inconsistencies.

Given that FGT_2 has a unique or custom configuration that might limit its role or participation in fabric synchronization, the root FortiGate would not send fabric object updates to it. Instead, synchronization would only occur to FGT_3, which remains configured with default settings and likely operates as a standard downstream device.

Option A is incorrect because synchronization does not flow upstream. Option B is wrong since the root FortiGate typically syncs with all downstream devices unless specifically restricted. Option C is incorrect because the root FortiGate’s main role includes synchronizing objects downstream, so it definitely sends updates to at least some downstream devices.

Option D correctly reflects a scenario where only FGT_3 receives synchronization from the root FortiGate, probably because of FGT_2’s special configuration or role preventing such synchronization.

In conclusion, understanding the direction and hierarchy of fabric synchronization is key, and D is the correct answer as it accurately describes that the root FortiGate syncs objects solely to FGT_3 in this scenario.

Question 9:

A FortiGate firewall administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec VPN tunnel that is established between two FortiGate devices. The tunnel is up, but traffic is not passing through the VPN. 

Which of the following steps should the administrator take first to identify the cause of the issue?

A. Verify the firewall policies allowing traffic through the VPN tunnel
B. Check the routing table on both FortiGate devices for correct routes
C. Restart the VPN tunnel to reset the security associations
D. Update the firmware on both FortiGate devices

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

When a VPN tunnel shows as established but no traffic passes through, the first troubleshooting step is often to verify the firewall policies. In FortiGate devices, even if the VPN tunnel is active, firewall policies govern whether traffic is allowed to enter and exit through the VPN interface. Without properly configured policies, packets will be dropped.

Option A is correct because the firewall policies must explicitly allow traffic from the source interface (usually the internal network) to the VPN interface (or virtual tunnel interface). These policies must also allow return traffic. If the policies are missing or misconfigured (wrong source/destination addresses, services, or NAT settings), traffic will be blocked despite the VPN tunnel being active.

Option B is also important because correct routing ensures that traffic destined for the remote network goes through the VPN tunnel. However, routing issues typically result in the tunnel not being used, or traffic being dropped due to unreachable routes. Since the tunnel is already up, the routing is less likely the immediate problem but should be checked if policies are correct.

Option C, restarting the VPN tunnel, might sometimes fix temporary issues, but it is not the first or primary step in troubleshooting traffic flow problems. It also does not address potential misconfigurations in policies or routing.

Option D, updating firmware, is generally unrelated to an active tunnel with traffic issues and should be done only if there is a known bug or after troubleshooting has ruled out configuration problems.

In summary, the key step when traffic does not flow through an active VPN tunnel on FortiGate is to ensure that the firewall policies permit the desired traffic. This foundational check will often identify the root cause or rule out policy-related issues before moving on to routing or other troubleshooting steps.

Question 10:

Which of the following describes the function of the FortiGate Security Fabric in a large enterprise network?

A. It acts as a single point of failure by consolidating all security functions into one device
B. It integrates multiple Fortinet products to provide centralized management and coordinated threat detection
C. It replaces the need for endpoint antivirus software by providing network-level malware protection
D. It eliminates the requirement for firewall policies by automating all traffic filtering

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The FortiGate Security Fabric is a core concept in Fortinet’s approach to cybersecurity, especially in complex, large enterprise environments where multiple security products operate in tandem. The Security Fabric integrates Fortinet’s range of security devices—firewalls, switches, access points, endpoint protection, and more—into a unified architecture. This integration allows centralized management, improved visibility, and coordinated threat detection and response.

Option B is correct because the Security Fabric provides a comprehensive security ecosystem. It enables sharing of threat intelligence between devices, automates responses to detected threats, and offers centralized policy management. This interconnected framework strengthens the overall security posture by ensuring devices don’t operate in isolation but collaboratively defend the network.

Option A is incorrect. The Security Fabric is designed to reduce risks associated with single points of failure by distributing security controls across multiple layers and devices, thereby enhancing redundancy and resilience rather than consolidating everything into one vulnerable point.

Option C is also incorrect. While Fortinet’s solutions include endpoint protection, the Security Fabric complements but does not replace endpoint antivirus software. Endpoint protection still plays a crucial role in defending against malware on individual devices.

Option D is false because the Security Fabric does not eliminate firewall policies. Firewall policies remain critical to controlling traffic flows. The Fabric may automate certain responses and policy deployments but does not remove the fundamental need for well-defined security policies.

In conclusion, the FortiGate Security Fabric is best understood as a collaborative and integrated security platform that connects multiple Fortinet products to improve network-wide visibility, management, and threat defense, making B the correct answer.