Fortinet NSE7_NST-7.2 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

In a situation where the Server Name Indication (SNI) presented by a client does not match either the Common Name (CN) or any Subject Alternative Name (SAN) entries in the server’s SSL certificate, how does FortiGate behave by default during SSL certificate inspection?

A. FortiGate terminates the connection due to an invalid SSL/TLS configuration.
B. FortiGate defaults to using the CN value from the certificate’s Subject field.
C. FortiGate chooses the first SAN entry listed in the certificate.
D. FortiGate uses the SNI provided by the client’s browser.

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

When FortiGate performs SSL certificate inspection, it validates the server’s certificate during the SSL handshake by comparing the Server Name Indication (SNI) from the client with the Common Name (CN) or the Subject Alternative Name (SAN) entries in the server certificate. The SNI is a hostname provided by the client to specify which server it is trying to reach on a multi-host server environment.

If the SNI does not match any CN or SAN entries, FortiGate does not immediately terminate the connection. Instead, the default behavior is to fallback and use the CN from the certificate’s Subject field for validation purposes. This is because the CN traditionally holds the primary domain name for which the certificate is issued, and serves as a reliable identifier when the SAN fields do not match.

Option A is incorrect because FortiGate does not close the connection simply due to an SNI mismatch; it is designed to be more tolerant and fallback gracefully. Option C is wrong because FortiGate does not automatically pick the first SAN entry when there’s a mismatch; it prefers the CN instead. Lastly, option D is inaccurate since FortiGate does not rely on the client’s SNI when there’s a mismatch but instead refers back to the server certificate’s CN field.

In summary, option B accurately describes FortiGate’s default SSL inspection behavior, ensuring inspection can continue by falling back on the CN value in the certificate if the SNI does not match any entries.

Question 2:

A FortiGate firewall is configured with a policy permitting all ICMP traffic from port1 to port3. However, the server at IP address 10.4.0.1/24 is not receiving ICMP echo replies from a laptop located at 10.1.0.1/24. 

What configuration change is necessary to ensure the server receives these replies?

A. Enable asymmetric routing in the system settings.
B. Change the laptop’s default gateway from 10.1.0.2 to 10.2.0.2.
C. Create a firewall policy allowing all ICMP traffic from port3 to port1.
D. Adjust the Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) check mode from strict to feasible.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

In this scenario, the administrator has allowed ICMP traffic from port1 to port3, enabling the laptop to send echo requests to the server. However, the server is not receiving the corresponding echo replies from the laptop, which indicates that the return traffic is being blocked.

The fundamental principle of stateful firewalling is that both request and reply traffic must be allowed to flow through the firewall. While the existing policy covers outgoing ICMP requests from port1 to port3, no policy explicitly permits the reply traffic traveling in the reverse direction—from port3 back to port1.

Option C correctly identifies the need for a return policy that permits ICMP traffic from port3 to port1. Without this, the server’s echo replies are dropped by the firewall, preventing successful communication.

Option A, enabling asymmetric routing, would allow traffic to pass through different interfaces but does not specifically permit return ICMP traffic. It is a broader setting not directly addressing the missing policy.

Option B, changing the laptop’s default gateway, affects routing paths but does not solve the issue of the firewall blocking return traffic.

Option D, modifying RPF check mode, controls how the firewall validates source addresses on inbound traffic, but since the problem lies in missing firewall rules for the return path, this adjustment is unnecessary and unlikely to fix the problem.

In conclusion, the missing piece is a firewall policy allowing the reply ICMP traffic from port3 to port1. Implementing this policy ensures the server receives echo replies properly, making option C the correct answer.

Question 3:

Based on the default configuration, what does the conserve mode status in the exhibit indicate?

A. FortiGate is blocking new sessions that require either flow-based or proxy-based content inspection.
B. FortiGate is blocking all new sessions, regardless of the type of content inspection or configuration, due to high memory usage.
C. FortiGate allows new sessions requiring flow-based or proxy-based inspection but does not actually inspect those sessions.
D. FortiGate allows new sessions needing flow-based inspection but blocks those requiring proxy-based inspection.

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

Conserve mode is a protective mechanism on FortiGate devices designed to handle situations when the system is experiencing critical resource shortages, particularly in memory availability. When FortiGate detects that its memory usage has reached a threshold that could affect system stability, it automatically activates conserve mode to preserve system health.

In conserve mode, the primary action taken by FortiGate is to block all new sessions from being established. This behavior ensures that existing sessions can continue without interruption, preventing a total system overload or crash. By blocking new sessions altogether, regardless of whether they require flow-based or proxy-based content inspection, FortiGate effectively prioritizes resource allocation to maintain ongoing traffic and device functionality.

Option A is partially true in that some sessions might be blocked due to inspection needs, but conserve mode does not selectively block based on inspection type. Instead, it blocks all new sessions without differentiation.

Option C is incorrect because conserve mode prevents the initiation of new sessions; it does not allow new sessions without inspection.

Option D incorrectly implies that FortiGate selectively allows flow-based inspected sessions while blocking proxy-based ones. However, conserve mode does not discriminate between session types—it blocks all new sessions to conserve resources.

Therefore, the accurate interpretation is represented by Option B, reflecting the default and intended behavior of conserve mode: a safeguard measure triggered by high memory consumption to maintain overall system stability by blocking all new sessions.

Question 4:

Given the context of a session on FortiGate, which explanation best describes the session behavior?

A. FortiGate allowed the session to pass without performing any inspection.
B. FortiGate is using CPU resources to apply a security profile inspection to the session.
C. FortiGate redirected the client to a captive portal to authenticate before policy enforcement.
D. FortiGate applied only Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) inspection on the session.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

Understanding FortiGate’s session processing requires context around the security policies and features configured on the device. FortiGate uses several mechanisms to enforce security, including inspections, policy matches, and user authentication steps such as captive portals.

Option A suggests that the session was forwarded without any inspection. This scenario is unlikely because FortiGate typically applies at least some inspection or security profile unless explicitly configured otherwise. For instance, traffic often undergoes antivirus scanning, application control, web filtering, or IPS checks.

Option B is plausible when FortiGate applies security profiles that consume CPU resources, such as antivirus scanning or content filtering. However, without further details about CPU load or applied profiles, this option remains speculative rather than definitive.

Option C correctly explains a very common scenario where FortiGate redirects the user to a captive portal for authentication. This behavior is typical in networks that require user identity verification before allowing access or applying specific security policies. When a session arrives and lacks user authentication, FortiGate intercepts it and sends the user to the captive portal. After the user authenticates, FortiGate can enforce the appropriate security policies based on the user’s credentials or group memberships.

Option D is more limited in scope, implying that only IPS inspection is applied. While IPS may be active, it’s uncommon that IPS is the sole inspection, especially in environments where multiple security profiles coexist.

Hence, the best explanation for the observed session behavior is Option C, which fits scenarios where FortiGate enforces user authentication through captive portals before permitting further network access and policy application.

Question 5:

Which statement accurately describes the relationship and characteristics of IKE and IKE NAT-T protocols?

A. IKE is responsible for encapsulating ESP traffic in certain cases, while IKE NAT-T is only activated when the FortiGate device applies NAT on the IPsec interface.
B. IKE is the default protocol for IKEv1, and IKE NAT-T is an additional feature introduced exclusively in IKEv2.
C. IKE and IKE NAT-T each utilize their own distinct IP protocol numbers.
D. Both IKE and IKE NAT-T use UDP as their transport protocol, and their port numbers can be modified.

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

IKE (Internet Key Exchange) and IKE NAT-T (Network Address Translation Traversal) play vital roles in establishing and maintaining IPsec VPN tunnels, especially when NAT devices are present between peers. Understanding how these protocols operate helps in configuring and troubleshooting VPNs effectively.

Option D is correct because both IKE and IKE NAT-T rely on UDP as their transport protocol. Typically, IKE communicates over UDP port 500, and when NAT is detected between the VPN peers, NAT-T encapsulates IKE and ESP traffic over UDP port 4500 to ensure smooth traversal through NAT devices. Importantly, these port numbers are configurable based on network policies or firewall requirements, allowing flexibility in deployment.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• A incorrectly claims that IKE encapsulates ESP traffic, which is not true; ESP traffic is encapsulated separately during the IPsec data phase, not during key exchange. Also, IKE NAT-T activates whenever NAT is detected, regardless of whether NAT is on the IPsec interface itself.

• B mistakenly states that NAT-T is an extension only for IKEv2. In reality, NAT-T was introduced for IKEv1 to help with NAT traversal, and IKEv2 has its own enhancements but still supports NAT-T.

• C wrongly suggests that IKE and NAT-T use separate IP protocol numbers. Both operate over UDP and don’t have unique IP protocol numbers like ESP (protocol 50) or AH (protocol 51).

In summary, both IKE and IKE NAT-T function over UDP with configurable ports, ensuring secure key exchange and NAT traversal in IPsec VPNs.

Question 6:

When the primary device in an HA setup has an ID of 0, what happens to active sessions if the primary fails and the secondary device takes over as primary?

A. The secondary device clears the session table due to error packets, forcing clients to restart connections.
B. Sessions remain, but the kernel must reprocess them because NAT is involved.
C. Traffic for active sessions continues seamlessly on the new primary without clients needing to reconnect.
D. The secondary has synchronized sessions, but due to application control, sessions are marked dirty and must be re-evaluated.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

In a High Availability (HA) environment, maintaining session continuity during a failover is crucial to ensure uninterrupted network services. When the primary device fails and the secondary device assumes the primary role, the way active sessions are handled directly affects user experience and network stability.

Option C correctly reflects the ideal HA behavior. Modern HA implementations synchronize session states between primary and secondary devices in real-time. This synchronization ensures that when a failover occurs, the secondary device possesses the full session context, allowing it to continue processing traffic without requiring clients to restart or reinitiate connections. This seamless transition minimizes downtime and prevents session interruptions, which is critical for business continuity.

Analyzing the incorrect options:

• A incorrectly suggests the session table is cleared due to error packets, forcing client reconnections. In practice, HA systems are designed to avoid this scenario by replicating session states precisely.

• B mentions that sessions remain but require kernel re-evaluation because of NAT. While NAT can complicate session handling, a well-implemented HA system generally preserves sessions fully without forcing re-evaluation unless specific conditions arise.

• D highlights that application control may mark sessions as dirty, requiring reprocessing. Although application control features might impact session states, the standard failover behavior still aims for session continuity. The "dirty" session re-evaluation is situational and not the default.

In conclusion, the best practice in HA configurations is to allow the secondary device to take over with full session synchronization, enabling uninterrupted traffic flow and preventing clients from needing to restart sessions. This ensures high reliability and user satisfaction during failover events.

Question 7:

Which three conditions must be met for two FortiGate devices to successfully establish an OSPF adjacency? (Select three.)

A. OSPF link costs must be identical
B. OSPF interface priorities must be distinct
C. OSPF interface network types must match
D. Authentication settings must be the same
E. OSPF router IDs must be unique

Correct answer: C, D, E

Explanation:

To form an OSPF adjacency between two FortiGate devices, several essential requirements need to be satisfied to ensure proper communication and neighbor relationship formation. Among these, three key conditions stand out:

C. Matching OSPF interface network types: OSPF interfaces have various network types such as broadcast, point-to-point, or non-broadcast. For two devices to become neighbors, both ends of the link must be configured with the same network type. A mismatch—for example, one side set to broadcast and the other to point-to-point—prevents adjacency because OSPF uses network type to determine how routers communicate and elect Designated Routers (DRs).

D. Matching authentication settings: OSPF can be configured to require authentication for routing updates, enhancing network security. If one device has authentication enabled, the peer must have the exact same authentication method and key/password configured. Failure to match these settings will result in OSPF packets being rejected, blocking adjacency formation.

E. Unique router IDs: Each OSPF router must have a unique router ID within the same OSPF domain to avoid routing conflicts. The router ID identifies the device during the OSPF process. Duplicate IDs cause confusion and prevent the routers from forming a neighbor relationship correctly.

Now, examining the other options:

A. OSPF link costs do not have to match: Link cost affects route selection, not adjacency formation. Different link costs simply influence which path is preferred once adjacency is formed, so cost mismatches do not prevent adjacency.

B. Interface priority uniqueness is not required: Priority values are used in DR elections on broadcast networks but do not affect adjacency formation directly.

In conclusion, the three non-negotiable conditions for OSPF adjacency are matching interface network types, matching authentication settings, and unique router IDs. These ensure that FortiGate devices can properly communicate and exchange routing information. Therefore, the correct answers are C, D, and E.

Question 8:

If the priority of route ID 2 is changed from 10 to 0, what impact does this have on traffic for the related user session?

A. The session would be deleted, forcing the client to establish a new session
B. The session would persist, and traffic would be sent out through both port1 and port2
C. The session would remain active, and traffic would exit via port2
D. The session would remain active, and traffic would continue to exit via port1

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

When the priority of a route changes in a FortiGate device's routing table, it affects how outgoing traffic is routed but does not necessarily impact the session itself immediately. Routes with lower priority values are preferred because FortiGate treats smaller numbers as higher priority.

Here, changing route ID 2’s priority from 10 to 0 makes it the new best route for the associated traffic. Let’s analyze the options in this context:

A. Session deletion is incorrect: Sessions are stored in the FortiGate’s session table and generally persist unless explicitly terminated or expired. Changing route priority does not inherently delete active sessions. So, clients do not need to restart their sessions.

B. Traffic egress on both ports simultaneously is incorrect: FortiGate does not split traffic automatically between two interfaces based on route priority changes. Multipath routing or load balancing must be explicitly configured for such behavior.

C. Session remains, and traffic egresses via port2 is correct: Since route ID 2 now has the highest priority (lowest number), traffic matching that session is routed out through the interface associated with route ID 2—port2 in this case. The session remains intact, but the traffic path shifts according to the updated routing decision.

D. Traffic continuing via port1 is incorrect: After the priority change, port1 is no longer the preferred egress path; thus, traffic does not continue to flow through it.

In summary, updating a route’s priority to a more preferred value causes FortiGate to adjust traffic forwarding for existing sessions to the newly preferred route without deleting or interrupting those sessions. This behavior supports seamless traffic redirection and network resilience. Hence, the correct answer is C.

Question 9:

Based on the provided log entries, which three conclusions can you reasonably infer? (Select three.)

A. The remote registry service is not active on the workstation.
B. The FortiGate firmware version is incompatible with the collector agent’s version.
C. DNS is failing to resolve the workstation’s hostname.
D. The user’s status is marked as “not verified” within the collector agent.
E. A firewall is blocking network traffic on ports 139 and 445.

Correct answer: A, C, E

Explanation:

When interpreting log entries related to network and security activities, it’s crucial to identify which underlying problems they reveal. The logs typically show symptoms of connectivity or communication issues between devices, services, or agents. Let’s analyze the options carefully:

Option A suggests that the remote registry service is not running on the workstation. This service allows remote access to the Windows registry for management purposes. If connection attempts to the workstation fail or time out in the logs, especially when targeting the remote registry, it is a strong indication that this service is either stopped or blocked. Without this service active, certain remote operations cannot proceed, explaining failed log entries.

Option B claims a firmware incompatibility between the FortiGate device and the collector agent. While firmware mismatches can cause issues, logs typically include explicit error codes or messages to confirm such incompatibility. In the absence of these specific errors, this conclusion is speculative and not strongly supported by generic log failures.

Option C points out a DNS resolution failure for the workstation’s hostname. DNS problems are common causes of network failures; if logs show errors like “hostname not found” or “unable to resolve,” it clearly suggests that DNS servers cannot translate the workstation’s name to an IP address, thereby blocking communication.

Option D notes that the user’s status is “not verified.” Although user verification problems could affect authentication, this status usually relates to login or identity confirmation rather than fundamental connectivity issues seen in the logs. Without explicit log entries confirming verification failures, this is less likely.

Option E involves a firewall blocking essential ports 139 and 445, which are used for Windows file sharing and remote management via SMB protocol. Logs showing failed attempts to connect or communicate on these ports strongly suggest firewall rules are preventing access, which is a common network security measure.

In summary, the most plausible conclusions from typical log entries are that the remote registry service is inactive (A), DNS is unable to resolve the hostname (C), and firewall restrictions are blocking critical ports (E). These factors frequently appear in network logs as primary reasons for communication failures.

Question 10:

In a FortiNAC deployment, which method should be used to ensure that a newly connected endpoint device is automatically quarantined until it passes a compliance check?

A. Enable SNMP traps on the switch to detect unauthorized devices.
B. Configure the FortiNAC policy to assign non-compliant devices to a quarantine VLAN.
C. Set up FortiGate firewall rules to block all new devices by default.
D. Use FortiAnalyzer logs to manually identify and quarantine suspicious devices.

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

The Fortinet NSE7_NST-7 certification focuses on network security troubleshooting and the effective deployment of Fortinet solutions like FortiNAC (Network Access Control), FortiGate, FortiAnalyzer, and other components. Understanding automated endpoint compliance and quarantine mechanisms is critical to maintaining network security integrity.

In this scenario, the goal is to automatically quarantine newly connected endpoint devices until they pass a compliance check. This process is fundamental to enforcing network access control policies and preventing non-compliant or potentially malicious devices from gaining unrestricted access.

• Option A: Enabling SNMP traps on switches helps in detecting new devices by monitoring network events. However, SNMP traps themselves don’t enforce quarantine policies or isolate devices. They provide visibility but not automatic remediation. So, while useful for monitoring, this option does not fulfill the requirement for automatic quarantining.

• Option B: This is the correct answer. FortiNAC’s strength lies in its ability to automatically enforce network policies based on endpoint compliance status. Administrators can configure FortiNAC to assign non-compliant devices to a quarantine VLAN. This isolation ensures that devices cannot access critical resources until they complete required checks, such as antivirus scans, patch verification, or configuration validation. The quarantine VLAN effectively limits network exposure while allowing remediation.

• Option C: Configuring FortiGate firewall rules to block all new devices by default is overly broad and not scalable. While blocking unknown devices can enhance security, it lacks the granularity and automation provided by FortiNAC’s compliance-based quarantining. It would also require constant manual updates and exceptions, making it impractical.

• Option D: Using FortiAnalyzer logs to identify suspicious devices is a reactive approach. It involves manual investigation and lacks the immediacy required to quarantine devices automatically. Logs are valuable for auditing and post-event analysis but not suitable for proactive quarantine enforcement.

In summary, FortiNAC’s policy configuration to assign non-compliant endpoints to a quarantine VLAN is the most effective and automated method for ensuring security compliance upon device connection. This approach aligns with best practices in network access control and is a key competency for the NSE7_NST-7 exam.