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CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test 16

Question 150

A trusted employee's Wi-Fi badge suddenly produces building entries in two distant sites minutes apart, and reader identifiers share cloned UID data. Which physical attack is plausible?

  1. Normal password-expiration behavior
  2. Database transaction rollback
  3. RFID credential cloning or copied badge identifier
  4. Cross-site DNS load balancing

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Duplicate credential identity at incompatible locations suggests token copying or reader spoofing. For this case, and reader identifiers share cloned UID data. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. The competing choice “Normal password-expiration behavior” addresses a different mechanism: computer account password changes do not clone building access tokens. That difference is material to the requested decision. Incompatible simultaneous badge sightings should trigger validation of access-reader logs and physical custody; a cloned identifier is a plausible cause, not proof of who used it.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Computer account password changes do not clone building access tokens. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is and reader identifiers share cloned UID data. “RFID credential cloning or copied badge identifier” matches that requirement because duplicate credential identity at incompatible locations suggests token copying or reader spoofing.

B:

Rollback can revert records but does not create a second active physical badge identity. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. In the reported situation, and reader identifiers share cloned UID data. The effective mechanism is “RFID credential cloning or copied badge identifier”: duplicate credential identity at incompatible locations suggests token copying or reader spoofing.

D:

Name resolution does not account for physical badge observations. DNS determines how names resolve to network destinations; it is not by itself a mechanism for validating a human identity or code provenance. Here the decisive fact is and reader identifiers share cloned UID data. “RFID credential cloning or copied badge identifier” matches that requirement because duplicate credential identity at incompatible locations suggests token copying or reader spoofing.

Question 151

A secure server room door frame shows pry marks, the lock cylinder is damaged, and a camera records repeated forced pulls. Which class of attack is directly evidenced?

  1. Email spoofing of facility staff
  2. Physical brute-force entry attempt
  3. API rate-limit bypass
  4. Network replay of signed requests

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Mechanical damage and force directed at the lock indicate an attempt to overcome the physical barrier. Evidence quality depends on acquisition provenance, controlled handling and the ability to reproduce the finding; merely locating an artifact does not authenticate its origin. The stated evidence is and a camera records repeated forced pulls. This distinction rules out “Network replay of signed requests”: packet reuse does not produce pry marks on an access point. “Physical brute-force entry attempt” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Forged messages are not sufficient to explain observed forced hardware contact. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. Here the decisive fact is and a camera records repeated forced pulls. “Physical brute-force entry attempt” matches that requirement because mechanical damage and force directed at the lock indicate an attempt to overcome the physical barrier.

C:

An application request pattern cannot damage a door cylinder. The evidence is and a camera records repeated forced pulls. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. By contrast, “Physical brute-force entry attempt” operates on the specific concern: mechanical damage and force directed at the lock indicate an attempt to overcome the physical barrier.

D:

Packet reuse does not produce pry marks on an access point. A signature can show which key signed an object, but provenance and authorization depend on how that key and build process are trusted. Here the decisive fact is and a camera records repeated forced pulls. “Physical brute-force entry attempt” matches that requirement because mechanical damage and force directed at the lock indicate an attempt to overcome the physical barrier.

Question 152

A compromised workstation accesses sequential administrative shares on several servers and creates remote services using the same stolen privileged account. What movement pattern is indicated?

  1. A routine encrypted backup retrieval
  2. A standard browser redirect to a login page
  3. Physical tailgating into a restricted room
  4. Lateral movement through remote administration

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The attacker pivots among internal hosts after initial compromise using privileged connectivity. Least privilege requires evaluating the specific action and resource granted to a principal; a broadly authenticated identity should not inherit unrelated high-impact operations. The case turns on a compromised workstation accesses sequential administrative shares on several servers and creates remote services using the same stolen privileged account; “Lateral movement through remote administration” addresses that precise condition. “A standard browser redirect to a login page” is not equivalent because browser redirection does not create remote services across internal machines.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Remote service creation on unrelated servers is not standard file restore behavior. Backups and replicated copies mainly serve recovery and resilience; they do not inherently prevent an attacker from obtaining present access. Here the decisive fact is a compromised workstation accesses sequential administrative shares on several servers and creates remote services using the same stolen privileged account. “Lateral movement through remote administration” matches that requirement because the attacker pivots among internal hosts after initial compromise using privileged connectivity.

B:

Browser redirection does not create remote services across internal machines. Browser and web-origin mechanisms affect one request path; the right diagnosis depends on whether the client or trusted server is performing the sensitive action. In the reported situation, a compromised workstation accesses sequential administrative shares on several servers and creates remote services using the same stolen privileged account. The effective mechanism is “Lateral movement through remote administration”: the attacker pivots among internal hosts after initial compromise using privileged connectivity.

C:

The observed movement is between network hosts, not doorways. The evidence is a compromised workstation accesses sequential administrative shares on several servers and creates remote services using the same stolen privileged account. Physical mechanisms address passage or impact at a location; they cannot directly repair software validation and network authorization defects. By contrast, “Lateral movement through remote administration” operates on the specific concern: the attacker pivots among internal hosts after initial compromise using privileged connectivity.

Question 153

A finance subnet handles sensitive payment data, but contractor kiosks currently reach its database service directly. Which network mitigation most directly reduces lateral exposure?

  1. Share the same subnet with every kiosk for easier troubleshooting
  2. Deploy an IDS sensor between kiosks and the payment network without blocking
  3. Separate the payment zone and enforce least-privilege inter-zone access
  4. Enable encryption at rest on the payment database while retaining the flat network

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Segmentation with explicit service rules blocks kiosk paths that have no business need. For this case, contractor kiosks currently reach its database service directly. Least privilege requires evaluating the specific action and resource granted to a principal; a broadly authenticated identity should not inherit unrelated high-impact operations. The competing choice “Enable encryption at rest on the payment database while retaining the flat network” addresses a different mechanism: at-rest encryption protects stolen storage but does not stop authorized network sessions from contractor kiosks reaching the payment service. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Flat connectivity increases lateral access to the payment database. Network restrictions govern allowed flows and trust boundaries, not every application-layer input or business permission. Here the decisive fact is contractor kiosks currently reach its database service directly. “Separate the payment zone and enforce least-privilege inter-zone access” matches that requirement because segmentation with explicit service rules blocks kiosk paths that have no business need.

B:

An IDS may detect risky sessions but cannot enforce least-privilege isolation when network routes remain open. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. In the reported situation, contractor kiosks currently reach its database service directly. The effective mechanism is “Separate the payment zone and enforce least-privilege inter-zone access”: segmentation with explicit service rules blocks kiosk paths that have no business need.

D:

At-rest encryption protects stolen storage but does not stop authorized network sessions from contractor kiosks reaching the payment service. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. Here the decisive fact is contractor kiosks currently reach its database service directly. “Separate the payment zone and enforce least-privilege inter-zone access” matches that requirement because segmentation with explicit service rules blocks kiosk paths that have no business need.

Question 154

A service should accept HTTPS only when it arrives from its authorized reverse proxy. Which policy best limits other inbound paths while retaining intended production traffic?

  1. Rely on an application log alert for traffic bypassing the proxy without denying connections
  2. Allow the proxy and all neighboring subnets using the same shared network security group
  3. Use a default-deny ingress policy with a precise source/proxy-to-service exception
  4. Allow any Internet source to the service as long as the connection uses TLS

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The rule constrains source, destination and service without allowing direct client bypass of the approved proxy. For this case, a service should accept HTTPS only when it arrives from its authorized reverse proxy. A useful network control is testable in both directions: approved business traffic must continue while unrelated source, destination and port combinations are explicitly rejected. The competing choice “Rely on an application log alert for traffic bypassing the proxy without denying connections” addresses a different mechanism: detecting proxy bypass after a session starts leaves the unwanted ingress route reachable. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Detecting proxy bypass after a session starts leaves the unwanted ingress route reachable. Telemetry provides evidence and may trigger a response; it does not automatically deny a transaction or remediate its cause. Here the decisive fact is a service should accept HTTPS only when it arrives from its authorized reverse proxy. “Use a default-deny ingress policy with a precise source/proxy-to-service exception” matches that requirement because the rule constrains source, destination and service without allowing direct client bypass of the approved proxy.

B:

Broadly allowing adjacent sources exceeds the documented proxy-only trust path and permits bypass traffic. Network restrictions govern allowed flows and trust boundaries, not every application-layer input or business permission. In the reported situation, a service should accept HTTPS only when it arrives from its authorized reverse proxy. The effective mechanism is “Use a default-deny ingress policy with a precise source/proxy-to-service exception”: the rule constrains source, destination and service without allowing direct client bypass of the approved proxy.

D:

Encrypted transport cannot ensure that traffic entered through the approved inspection and authentication proxy. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. Here the decisive fact is a service should accept HTTPS only when it arrives from its authorized reverse proxy. “Use a default-deny ingress policy with a precise source/proxy-to-service exception” matches that requirement because the rule constrains source, destination and service without allowing direct client bypass of the approved proxy.

Question 155

A vulnerability scanner identifies an exploitable flaw in a supported database engine; the vendor has released a tested security update. Which remediation is most appropriate?

  1. Deploy an application-layer detection rule while postponing the supported database patch indefinitely
  2. Block public client IP ranges while leaving the vulnerable engine reachable internally
  3. Stage and deploy the vendor security patch with rollback verification
  4. Raise the database network IDS signature severity without installing the available security fix

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Applying a supported fix addresses the identified flaw while validating service continuity. For this case, a vulnerability scanner identifies an exploitable flaw in a supported database engine; the vendor has released a tested security update. Prioritization should consider exploitable exposure, asset importance and remediation feasibility; a detector or workaround is not automatically equivalent to repairing vulnerable code. The competing choice “Deploy an application-layer detection rule while postponing the supported database patch indefinitely” addresses a different mechanism: a virtual patch may buy time but should not substitute for a tested supported vendor repair when available. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A virtual patch may buy time but should not substitute for a tested supported vendor repair when available. Patches address known software faults, but deployment must also preserve service compatibility and verify that the vulnerable component was actually replaced. Here the decisive fact is a vulnerability scanner identifies an exploitable flaw in a supported database engine; the vendor has released a tested security update. “Stage and deploy the vendor security patch with rollback verification” matches that requirement because applying a supported fix addresses the identified flaw while validating service continuity.

B:

Source filtering may reduce certain exposure but does not remediate an exploitable flaw still reachable by internal users. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. In the reported situation, a vulnerability scanner identifies an exploitable flaw in a supported database engine; the vendor has released a tested security update. The effective mechanism is “Stage and deploy the vendor security patch with rollback verification”: applying a supported fix addresses the identified flaw while validating service continuity.

D:

Detection may improve visibility, but the known exploitable flaw remains until patched or otherwise mitigated. Integrity evidence helps detect unauthorized changes only when compared with a trusted reference; it is not a substitute for authorization or confidentiality. Here the decisive fact is a vulnerability scanner identifies an exploitable flaw in a supported database engine; the vendor has released a tested security update. “Stage and deploy the vendor security patch with rollback verification” matches that requirement because applying a supported fix addresses the identified flaw while validating service continuity.

Question 156

A quarterly privilege review finds that temporary support accounts still have password-reset rights months after their assignments ended. Which mitigation corrects this exposure?

  1. Rotate only the support accounts passwords while leaving the same permissions active
  2. Enable audit logging without any owner review or removal of stale access
  3. Move the support accounts into a new group with identical effective rights
  4. Recertify task-scoped entitlements with their owners and revoke rights no longer justified

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Periodic entitlement recertification aligns residual permissions with actual work and removes privileges that outlive authorized assignments. Least privilege requires evaluating the specific action and resource granted to a principal; a broadly authenticated identity should not inherit unrelated high-impact operations. The case turns on a quarterly privilege review finds that temporary support accounts still have password-reset rights months after their assignments ended; “Recertify task-scoped entitlements with their owners and revoke rights no longer justified” addresses that precise condition. “Move the support accounts into a new group with identical effective rights” is not equivalent because renaming or regrouping principals without reducing grants leaves the excessive permissions in place.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Credential rotation can limit leaked secrets, but it does not revoke the unnecessary reset entitlement. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is a quarterly privilege review finds that temporary support accounts still have password-reset rights months after their assignments ended. “Recertify task-scoped entitlements with their owners and revoke rights no longer justified” matches that requirement because periodic entitlement recertification aligns residual permissions with actual work and removes privileges that outlive authorized assignments.

B:

Logging may reveal use of dormant rights, but it cannot replace permission review and deprovisioning. Assessment identifies a state and supplies findings, but does not itself enforce a preventive control or finish remediation. In the reported situation, a quarterly privilege review finds that temporary support accounts still have password-reset rights months after their assignments ended. The effective mechanism is “Recertify task-scoped entitlements with their owners and revoke rights no longer justified”: periodic entitlement recertification aligns residual permissions with actual work and removes privileges that outlive authorized assignments.

C:

Renaming or regrouping principals without reducing grants leaves the excessive permissions in place. The evidence is a quarterly privilege review finds that temporary support accounts still have password-reset rights months after their assignments ended. Access entitlements govern which specific operations a principal may perform; granting broad roles can expand the damage of credential compromise. By contrast, “Recertify task-scoped entitlements with their owners and revoke rights no longer justified” operates on the specific concern: periodic entitlement recertification aligns residual permissions with actual work and removes privileges that outlive authorized assignments.

Question 157

Attackers repeatedly phish one-time SMS codes from administrators to enter the cloud console. Which authentication control most effectively resists this particular interception?

  1. Send the same code to two email addresses
  2. Use an even longer reusable SMS code
  3. Disable MFA because users find it inconvenient
  4. Require phishing-resistant origin-bound security keys for privileged access

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An authenticator bound to the legitimate relying party is much harder to relay through a fake login page. Authentication is strongest when proof is tied to a trusted origin or independently established channel, because caller metadata and user-supplied messages can be imitated or relayed. The case turns on attackers repeatedly phish one-time SMS codes from administrators to enter the cloud console; “Require phishing-resistant origin-bound security keys for privileged access” addresses that precise condition. “Disable MFA because users find it inconvenient” is not equivalent because removing a factor gives phishers a simpler authentication path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Duplicating a replayable factor does not bind it to the genuine website. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. Here the decisive fact is attackers repeatedly phish one-time SMS codes from administrators to enter the cloud console. “Require phishing-resistant origin-bound security keys for privileged access” matches that requirement because an authenticator bound to the legitimate relying party is much harder to relay through a fake login page.

B:

A code spoken or typed into a phishing page can still be relayed regardless of length. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. In the reported situation, attackers repeatedly phish one-time SMS codes from administrators to enter the cloud console. The effective mechanism is “Require phishing-resistant origin-bound security keys for privileged access”: an authenticator bound to the legitimate relying party is much harder to relay through a fake login page.

C:

Removing a factor gives phishers a simpler authentication path. The evidence is attackers repeatedly phish one-time SMS codes from administrators to enter the cloud console. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. By contrast, “Require phishing-resistant origin-bound security keys for privileged access” operates on the specific concern: an authenticator bound to the legitimate relying party is much harder to relay through a fake login page.

Question 158

A finance spreadsheet tool runs user-installed macros that can execute arbitrary system commands. Which control most directly limits unapproved active content?

  1. Increase the workbook row limit
  2. Enforce signed-macro allowlisting and disable untrusted macro execution
  3. Hide the spreadsheet ribbon buttons
  4. Publish a longer warning email once a year

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A trust policy at execution time blocks scripts without approved provenance. Execution prevention differs from endpoint alerting: the policy must be evaluated before the process or macro is allowed to run, with denied attempts captured in audit logs. The stated evidence is a finance spreadsheet tool runs user-installed macros that can execute arbitrary system commands. This distinction rules out “Hide the spreadsheet ribbon buttons”: cosmetic interface changes do not stop underlying macro invocation. “Enforce signed-macro allowlisting and disable untrusted macro execution” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Spreadsheet capacity has no bearing on macro authorization. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. Here the decisive fact is a finance spreadsheet tool runs user-installed macros that can execute arbitrary system commands. “Enforce signed-macro allowlisting and disable untrusted macro execution” matches that requirement because a trust policy at execution time blocks scripts without approved provenance.

C:

Cosmetic interface changes do not stop underlying macro invocation. The evidence is a finance spreadsheet tool runs user-installed macros that can execute arbitrary system commands. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. By contrast, “Enforce signed-macro allowlisting and disable untrusted macro execution” operates on the specific concern: a trust policy at execution time blocks scripts without approved provenance.

D:

Awareness alone does not enforce a trusted-code boundary. Written guidance and awareness influence behavior, but they do not by themselves enforce a technical or physical boundary. Here the decisive fact is a finance spreadsheet tool runs user-installed macros that can execute arbitrary system commands. “Enforce signed-macro allowlisting and disable untrusted macro execution” matches that requirement because a trust policy at execution time blocks scripts without approved provenance.

Question 159

Cloud workloads receive admin permissions through groups, but service accounts inherit broad rights unrelated to their API functions. Which mitigation addresses excessive access?

  1. Grant wildcard administrator rights for deployment speed
  2. Rely entirely on encrypting storage volumes
  3. Reduce service-role grants to the minimal API operations and resources used
  4. Open management endpoints for monitoring vendors

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Workload-specific IAM permissions limit what a compromised service token can invoke. For this case, service accounts inherit broad rights unrelated to their API functions. Least privilege requires evaluating the specific action and resource granted to a principal; a broadly authenticated identity should not inherit unrelated high-impact operations. The competing choice “Grant wildcard administrator rights for deployment speed” addresses a different mechanism: unrestricted entitlements magnify credential theft impact. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unrestricted entitlements magnify credential theft impact. Access entitlements govern which specific operations a principal may perform; granting broad roles can expand the damage of credential compromise. Here the decisive fact is service accounts inherit broad rights unrelated to their API functions. “Reduce service-role grants to the minimal API operations and resources used” matches that requirement because workload-specific IAM permissions limit what a compromised service token can invoke.

B:

Encryption does not restrict authorized API calls by an overprivileged identity. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. In the reported situation, service accounts inherit broad rights unrelated to their API functions. The effective mechanism is “Reduce service-role grants to the minimal API operations and resources used”: workload-specific IAM permissions limit what a compromised service token can invoke.

D:

Broader network exposure does not correct excessive service IAM grants. Telemetry provides evidence and may trigger a response; it does not automatically deny a transaction or remediate its cause. Here the decisive fact is service accounts inherit broad rights unrelated to their API functions. “Reduce service-role grants to the minimal API operations and resources used” matches that requirement because workload-specific IAM permissions limit what a compromised service token can invoke.

Question 160

An enterprise wants guest wireless devices to reach the Internet but never reach printers, identity servers or internal shares. Which design meets that boundary?

  1. Hide the guest SSID while sharing the internal passphrase
  2. Use the same broadcast domain but rename the network
  3. Put visitors on the management VLAN for simpler support
  4. Put guests in a segregated network with egress-only policy

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Separate addressing and access rules prevent lateral contact with internal assets. A useful network control is testable in both directions: approved business traffic must continue while unrelated source, destination and port combinations are explicitly rejected. The case turns on never reach printers, identity servers or internal shares; “Put guests in a segregated network with egress-only policy” addresses that precise condition. “Hide the guest SSID while sharing the internal passphrase” is not equivalent because sSID hiding is not an isolation or authorization control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

SSID hiding is not an isolation or authorization control. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is never reach printers, identity servers or internal shares. “Put guests in a segregated network with egress-only policy” matches that requirement because separate addressing and access rules prevent lateral contact with internal assets.

B:

Cosmetic naming leaves layer-2 adjacency intact. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. In the reported situation, never reach printers, identity servers or internal shares. The effective mechanism is “Put guests in a segregated network with egress-only policy”: separate addressing and access rules prevent lateral contact with internal assets.

C:

The management segment grants access to sensitive infrastructure. The evidence is never reach printers, identity servers or internal shares. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. By contrast, “Put guests in a segregated network with egress-only policy” operates on the specific concern: separate addressing and access rules prevent lateral contact with internal assets.


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