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SY0-701 Premium File: 1013 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 12, 2026

SY0-701 Training Course: 167 Video Lectures

SY0-701 PDF Study Guide: 1003 Pages

$79.99

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CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test 17

Question 160

An enterprise wants guest wireless devices to reach the Internet but never reach printers, identity servers or internal shares. Which design meets that boundary?

  1. Hide the guest SSID while sharing the internal passphrase
  2. Use the same broadcast domain but rename the network
  3. Put visitors on the management VLAN for simpler support
  4. Put guests in a segregated network with egress-only policy

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Separate addressing and access rules prevent lateral contact with internal assets. A useful network control is testable in both directions: approved business traffic must continue while unrelated source, destination and port combinations are explicitly rejected. The case turns on never reach printers, identity servers or internal shares; “Put guests in a segregated network with egress-only policy” addresses that precise condition. “Hide the guest SSID while sharing the internal passphrase” is not equivalent because sSID hiding is not an isolation or authorization control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

SSID hiding is not an isolation or authorization control. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is never reach printers, identity servers or internal shares. “Put guests in a segregated network with egress-only policy” matches that requirement because separate addressing and access rules prevent lateral contact with internal assets.

B:

Cosmetic naming leaves layer-2 adjacency intact. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. In the reported situation, never reach printers, identity servers or internal shares. The effective mechanism is “Put guests in a segregated network with egress-only policy”: separate addressing and access rules prevent lateral contact with internal assets.

C:

The management segment grants access to sensitive infrastructure. The evidence is never reach printers, identity servers or internal shares. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. By contrast, “Put guests in a segregated network with egress-only policy” operates on the specific concern: separate addressing and access rules prevent lateral contact with internal assets.

Question 161

EDR telemetry confirms ransomware is active on one desktop and it is contacting file shares. What immediate containment reduces further spread?

  1. Copy affected documents to an open public share
  2. Ask the employee to continue working until the next shift
  3. Disable all incident logging on the host
  4. Isolate the endpoint from the network while preserving available evidence

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Network containment blocks access to shares and remote services during triage. During an active compromise, containment limits the attacker’s reach while investigators preserve evidence; longer-term eradication and recovery follow different decision criteria. The case turns on eDR telemetry confirms ransomware is active on one desktop and it is contacting file shares; “Isolate the endpoint from the network while preserving available evidence” addresses that precise condition. “Ask the employee to continue working until the next shift” is not equivalent because continuing normal access can encrypt additional reachable data.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Broad distribution can propagate infected data and increase exposure. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. Here the decisive fact is eDR telemetry confirms ransomware is active on one desktop and it is contacting file shares. “Isolate the endpoint from the network while preserving available evidence” matches that requirement because network containment blocks access to shares and remote services during triage.

B:

Continuing normal access can encrypt additional reachable data. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. In the reported situation, eDR telemetry confirms ransomware is active on one desktop and it is contacting file shares. The effective mechanism is “Isolate the endpoint from the network while preserving available evidence”: network containment blocks access to shares and remote services during triage.

C:

Log loss weakens investigation without stopping outbound activity. The evidence is eDR telemetry confirms ransomware is active on one desktop and it is contacting file shares. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. By contrast, “Isolate the endpoint from the network while preserving available evidence” operates on the specific concern: network containment blocks access to shares and remote services during triage.

Question 162

A critical file share is vulnerable to ransomware encrypting both live data and mounted backups. Which backup mitigation reduces adversary reach?

  1. Reduce restoration tests to save storage expenses
  2. Keep the only backup next to the production share on the same volume
  3. Mount every backup read/write with ordinary file-share credentials
  4. Maintain tested immutable or offline backup copies with separate recovery credentials

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Unavailable-to-the-attacker copies preserve a recovery path after the primary environment is compromised. Recovery controls have to be tested against actual restore requirements and isolated from the same compromise path; possessing a backup is not evidence that a timely, usable restoration is possible. The case turns on a critical file share is vulnerable to ransomware encrypting both live data and mounted backups; “Maintain tested immutable or offline backup copies with separate recovery credentials” addresses that precise condition. “Mount every backup read/write with ordinary file-share credentials” is not equivalent because the same attacker can encrypt backup copies accessible through the compromised account.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Untested recovery may fail precisely when an incident requires it. Retention and storage policies determine evidence availability and lifecycle; they do not automatically solve the active permission failure. Here the decisive fact is a critical file share is vulnerable to ransomware encrypting both live data and mounted backups. “Maintain tested immutable or offline backup copies with separate recovery credentials” matches that requirement because unavailable-to-the-attacker copies preserve a recovery path after the primary environment is compromised.

B:

Shared failure and permission domains undermine resilience. Backups and replicated copies mainly serve recovery and resilience; they do not inherently prevent an attacker from obtaining present access. In the reported situation, a critical file share is vulnerable to ransomware encrypting both live data and mounted backups. The effective mechanism is “Maintain tested immutable or offline backup copies with separate recovery credentials”: unavailable-to-the-attacker copies preserve a recovery path after the primary environment is compromised.

C:

The same attacker can encrypt backup copies accessible through the compromised account. The evidence is a critical file share is vulnerable to ransomware encrypting both live data and mounted backups. Backups and replicated copies mainly serve recovery and resilience; they do not inherently prevent an attacker from obtaining present access. By contrast, “Maintain tested immutable or offline backup copies with separate recovery credentials” operates on the specific concern: unavailable-to-the-attacker copies preserve a recovery path after the primary environment is compromised.

Question 163

Endpoints repeatedly resolve a newly identified malware command domain. Which network service can limit connections to that destination?

  1. Disable HTTPS certificate verification
  2. Protective DNS resolver with domain blocking or sinkholing
  3. Increase endpoint screen-lock timeouts
  4. Open inbound remote desktop to all clients

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Resolver policy prevents ordinary lookups from leading hosts to the listed malicious endpoint. During an active compromise, containment limits the attacker’s reach while investigators preserve evidence; longer-term eradication and recovery follow different decision criteria. The stated evidence is endpoints repeatedly resolve a newly identified malware command domain. This distinction rules out “Open inbound remote desktop to all clients”: additional management exposure does not block malicious outbound lookups. “Protective DNS resolver with domain blocking or sinkholing” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Peer trust removal makes outbound attacks easier rather than suppressing the domain. A certificate check is about peer identity, signer trust or revocation. It cannot replace a separate application permission or endpoint control. Here the decisive fact is endpoints repeatedly resolve a newly identified malware command domain. “Protective DNS resolver with domain blocking or sinkholing” matches that requirement because resolver policy prevents ordinary lookups from leading hosts to the listed malicious endpoint.

C:

Screen locks do not affect domain resolution by running malware. The evidence is endpoints repeatedly resolve a newly identified malware command domain. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. By contrast, “Protective DNS resolver with domain blocking or sinkholing” operates on the specific concern: resolver policy prevents ordinary lookups from leading hosts to the listed malicious endpoint.

D:

Additional management exposure does not block malicious outbound lookups. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. Here the decisive fact is endpoints repeatedly resolve a newly identified malware command domain. “Protective DNS resolver with domain blocking or sinkholing” matches that requirement because resolver policy prevents ordinary lookups from leading hosts to the listed malicious endpoint.

Question 164

A web API has suffered SQL injection through client-supplied search strings while developers implement parameterized queries. Which layered mitigation can reduce immediate exploit traffic?

  1. Deploy a tightly tuned application-layer rule set with monitored SQLi patterns
  2. Add more database read replicas without changing access checks
  3. Turn off all web request logging
  4. Make the database administrator password public in documentation

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A WAF can filter suspicious request structures temporarily while code fixes address the root cause. The key technical distinction is which interpreter or trust boundary the attacker controls; input becoming executable query syntax, script, command or a privileged server request requires different safeguards. The case turns on a web API has suffered SQL injection through client-supplied search strings while developers implement parameterized queries; “Deploy a tightly tuned application-layer rule set with monitored SQLi patterns” addresses that precise condition. “Make the database administrator password public in documentation” is not equivalent because publishing secrets increases attack paths instead of mitigating injection.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Extra query capacity does not stop attacker-controlled SQL syntax. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. In the reported situation, a web API has suffered SQL injection through client-supplied search strings while developers implement parameterized queries. The effective mechanism is “Deploy a tightly tuned application-layer rule set with monitored SQLi patterns”: a WAF can filter suspicious request structures temporarily while code fixes address the root cause.

C:

Missing logs makes detection and tuning harder. The evidence is a web API has suffered SQL injection through client-supplied search strings while developers implement parameterized queries. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. By contrast, “Deploy a tightly tuned application-layer rule set with monitored SQLi patterns” operates on the specific concern: a WAF can filter suspicious request structures temporarily while code fixes address the root cause.

D:

Publishing secrets increases attack paths instead of mitigating injection. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is a web API has suffered SQL injection through client-supplied search strings while developers implement parameterized queries. “Deploy a tightly tuned application-layer rule set with monitored SQLi patterns” matches that requirement because a WAF can filter suspicious request structures temporarily while code fixes address the root cause.

Question 165

Attackers send invoices with forged From domains that resemble internal finance identities. Which sender-authentication configuration helps recipients reject unauthorized sources?

  1. Disable TLS for outgoing mail
  2. Accept all messages from external mail servers unconditionally
  3. Align SPF and DKIM with an enforced DMARC policy
  4. Increase attachment size limits

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Domain alignment and rejection policy make unauthorized header-domain spoofing harder to deliver. For this case, attackers send invoices with forged From domains that resemble internal finance identities. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. The competing choice “Accept all messages from external mail servers unconditionally” addresses a different mechanism: unrestricted acceptance removes a protective verification opportunity. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Transport plaintext does not establish domain authorization. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. Here the decisive fact is attackers send invoices with forged From domains that resemble internal finance identities. “Align SPF and DKIM with an enforced DMARC policy” matches that requirement because domain alignment and rejection policy make unauthorized header-domain spoofing harder to deliver.

B:

Unrestricted acceptance removes a protective verification opportunity. A business risk or contractual measure can transfer or accept exposure without technically removing the vulnerable path. In the reported situation, attackers send invoices with forged From domains that resemble internal finance identities. The effective mechanism is “Align SPF and DKIM with an enforced DMARC policy”: domain alignment and rejection policy make unauthorized header-domain spoofing harder to deliver.

D:

Larger permitted files do not authenticate the visible sending domain. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. Here the decisive fact is attackers send invoices with forged From domains that resemble internal finance identities. “Align SPF and DKIM with an enforced DMARC policy” matches that requirement because domain alignment and rejection policy make unauthorized header-domain spoofing harder to deliver.

Question 166

An unused side entrance opens directly onto a manufacturing control room. Which physical mitigation most directly reduces unauthorized entry?

  1. Expand the corporate phishing simulation
  2. Disable or physically secure the unused door and monitor access exceptions
  3. Update the manufacturing ERP password expiry
  4. Increase DHCP lease duration in offices

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Removing an uncontrolled path prevents personnel bypassing the normal screened entrance. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. The stated evidence is an unused side entrance opens directly onto a manufacturing control room. This distinction rules out “Update the manufacturing ERP password expiry”: database credentials do not change a door's accessibility. “Disable or physically secure the unused door and monitor access exceptions” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Awareness testing cannot latch an unguarded entrance. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. Here the decisive fact is an unused side entrance opens directly onto a manufacturing control room. “Disable or physically secure the unused door and monitor access exceptions” matches that requirement because removing an uncontrolled path prevents personnel bypassing the normal screened entrance.

C:

Database credentials do not change a door's accessibility. The evidence is an unused side entrance opens directly onto a manufacturing control room. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. By contrast, “Disable or physically secure the unused door and monitor access exceptions” operates on the specific concern: removing an uncontrolled path prevents personnel bypassing the normal screened entrance.

D:

Network address allocation does not control physical access. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. Here the decisive fact is an unused side entrance opens directly onto a manufacturing control room. “Disable or physically secure the unused door and monitor access exceptions” matches that requirement because removing an uncontrolled path prevents personnel bypassing the normal screened entrance.

Question 167

A privileged API token is discovered in a public issue tracker, and auditors confirm it has been used by an unknown IP. Which immediate credential action is necessary?

  1. Wait for scheduled yearly rotation
  2. Rename the issue tracker project
  3. Revoke and replace the exposed token, then investigate its use
  4. Delete only the visible comment without revoking the token

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A copied live secret remains usable until invalidated; rotation and log review address access and scope. For this case, and auditors confirm it has been used by an unknown IP. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. The competing choice “Rename the issue tracker project” addresses a different mechanism: changing project labels does not invalidate a leaked credential. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The active token can be exploited throughout the delay. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. Here the decisive fact is and auditors confirm it has been used by an unknown IP. “Revoke and replace the exposed token, then investigate its use” matches that requirement because a copied live secret remains usable until invalidated; rotation and log review address access and scope.

B:

Changing project labels does not invalidate a leaked credential. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. In the reported situation, and auditors confirm it has been used by an unknown IP. The effective mechanism is “Revoke and replace the exposed token, then investigate its use”: a copied live secret remains usable until invalidated; rotation and log review address access and scope.

D:

Other copies of the token remain valid after text removal. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. Here the decisive fact is and auditors confirm it has been used by an unknown IP. “Revoke and replace the exposed token, then investigate its use” matches that requirement because a copied live secret remains usable until invalidated; rotation and log review address access and scope.

Question 168

A workstation stores authentication secrets in a world-readable settings file for convenience. Which mitigation most directly addresses local credential theft?

  1. Use a longer filename for the plaintext settings
  2. Encrypt only the office Wi-Fi SSID name
  3. Move secrets to a protected credential store with narrowly scoped access
  4. Publish the settings file in the application help pages

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An OS-backed secret store restricts retrieval and avoids plaintext accessible to ordinary processes. For this case, a workstation stores authentication secrets in a world-readable settings file for convenience. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. The competing choice “Publish the settings file in the application help pages” addresses a different mechanism: wider sharing makes secret theft easier. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

File names do not create access controls or encryption. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. Here the decisive fact is a workstation stores authentication secrets in a world-readable settings file for convenience. “Move secrets to a protected credential store with narrowly scoped access” matches that requirement because an OS-backed secret store restricts retrieval and avoids plaintext accessible to ordinary processes.

B:

Wireless network labels are unrelated to at-rest application secrets. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. In the reported situation, a workstation stores authentication secrets in a world-readable settings file for convenience. The effective mechanism is “Move secrets to a protected credential store with narrowly scoped access”: an OS-backed secret store restricts retrieval and avoids plaintext accessible to ordinary processes.

D:

Wider sharing makes secret theft easier. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. Here the decisive fact is a workstation stores authentication secrets in a world-readable settings file for convenience. “Move secrets to a protected credential store with narrowly scoped access” matches that requirement because an OS-backed secret store restricts retrieval and avoids plaintext accessible to ordinary processes.

Question 169

A service vendor requests permanent administrative access for a one-hour diagnostics session. Which access pattern is safer?

  1. Grant standing global administrator rights to the vendor group
  2. Use approved time-limited elevation with recorded session activity
  3. Disable session recording because the vendor is trusted
  4. Share an employee's password instead of issuing an identity

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Just-in-time rights expire after the task and preserve accountability for privileged actions. Supply-chain assurance must be matched to the delegated role and contracted responsibility, including evidence of controls and recovery expectations, not inferred solely from a supplier label. The stated evidence is a service vendor requests permanent administrative access for a one-hour diagnostics session. This distinction rules out “Disable session recording because the vendor is trusted”: external trust claims do not replace privileged activity evidence. “Use approved time-limited elevation with recorded session activity” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Permanent broad access extends beyond the troubleshooting need. Access entitlements govern which specific operations a principal may perform; granting broad roles can expand the damage of credential compromise. Here the decisive fact is a service vendor requests permanent administrative access for a one-hour diagnostics session. “Use approved time-limited elevation with recorded session activity” matches that requirement because just-in-time rights expire after the task and preserve accountability for privileged actions.

C:

External trust claims do not replace privileged activity evidence. The evidence is a service vendor requests permanent administrative access for a one-hour diagnostics session. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. By contrast, “Use approved time-limited elevation with recorded session activity” operates on the specific concern: just-in-time rights expire after the task and preserve accountability for privileged actions.

D:

Credential sharing defeats attribution and prevents clean revocation. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is a service vendor requests permanent administrative access for a one-hour diagnostics session. “Use approved time-limited elevation with recorded session activity” matches that requirement because just-in-time rights expire after the task and preserve accountability for privileged actions.

Question 170

A team decides to remove obsolete public APIs that no client uses, rather than add alarms to every endpoint. Which attack-surface mitigation is being applied?

  1. Keep the endpoint publicly accessible with a different marketing name
  2. Increase daily vulnerability-report volume
  3. Decommission unused services and close their ingress routes
  4. Retain an undocumented emergency admin bypass

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Removing an unnecessary listener eliminates exploit paths that monitoring would only observe. For this case, rather than add alarms to every endpoint. The classification is driven by the entry path and observable behavior in the scenario; a familiar attack label does not by itself prove the actor’s identity or every later impact. The competing choice “Keep the endpoint publicly accessible with a different marketing name” addresses a different mechanism: renaming does not remove reachability or vulnerable code. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Renaming does not remove reachability or vulnerable code. A security mitigation must reduce the specifically demonstrated path of compromise; detection and recovery play different roles from blocking and remediation. Here the decisive fact is rather than add alarms to every endpoint. “Decommission unused services and close their ingress routes” matches that requirement because removing an unnecessary listener eliminates exploit paths that monitoring would only observe.

B:

More reports cannot eliminate unneeded running services. Telemetry provides evidence and may trigger a response; it does not automatically deny a transaction or remediate its cause. In the reported situation, rather than add alarms to every endpoint. The effective mechanism is “Decommission unused services and close their ingress routes”: removing an unnecessary listener eliminates exploit paths that monitoring would only observe.

D:

A secret backdoor creates a new access path rather than reducing exposure. Access entitlements govern which specific operations a principal may perform; granting broad roles can expand the damage of credential compromise. Here the decisive fact is rather than add alarms to every endpoint. “Decommission unused services and close their ingress routes” matches that requirement because removing an unnecessary listener eliminates exploit paths that monitoring would only observe.


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