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SY0-701 Premium File: 1013 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 12, 2026

SY0-701 Training Course: 167 Video Lectures

SY0-701 PDF Study Guide: 1003 Pages

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CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test 14

Question 130

One infected workstation scans neighboring hosts and copies an exploit payload without anyone opening additional attachments. What behavior identifies the malware?

  1. A keyed hardware token authorizing logins
  2. A controlled update distributed by the configuration manager
  3. Worm-like autonomous propagation
  4. A document macro run separately by each employee

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Self-driven discovery and exploitation distinguish the spreading code from user-launched files. For this case, one infected workstation scans neighboring hosts and copies an exploit payload without anyone opening additional attachments. During an active compromise, containment limits the attacker’s reach while investigators preserve evidence; longer-term eradication and recovery follow different decision criteria. The competing choice “A controlled update distributed by the configuration manager” addresses a different mechanism: unapproved lateral exploit attempts are not expected update deployment. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Identity tokens do not copy executable payloads among hosts. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. Here the decisive fact is one infected workstation scans neighboring hosts and copies an exploit payload without anyone opening additional attachments. “Worm-like autonomous propagation” matches that requirement because self-driven discovery and exploitation distinguish the spreading code from user-launched files.

B:

Unapproved lateral exploit attempts are not expected update deployment. Patches address known software faults, but deployment must also preserve service compatibility and verify that the vulnerable component was actually replaced. In the reported situation, one infected workstation scans neighboring hosts and copies an exploit payload without anyone opening additional attachments. The effective mechanism is “Worm-like autonomous propagation”: self-driven discovery and exploitation distinguish the spreading code from user-launched files.

D:

The observed spreading does not require repeated user execution. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. Here the decisive fact is one infected workstation scans neighboring hosts and copies an exploit payload without anyone opening additional attachments. “Worm-like autonomous propagation” matches that requirement because self-driven discovery and exploitation distinguish the spreading code from user-launched files.

Question 131

A mobile app secretly records microphone activity and uploads contact data while presenting itself as a simple calculator. Which malicious behavior dominates?

  1. A load-balancer health check
  2. A legitimate service-discovery protocol
  3. Spyware collecting private user information
  4. A capacity-planning tool reporting CPU graphs

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Covert sensor and contact harvesting is surveillance beyond the app's visible function. For this case, a mobile app secretly records microphone activity and uploads contact data while presenting itself as a simple calculator. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. The competing choice “A capacity-planning tool reporting CPU graphs” addresses a different mechanism: performance metrics do not require recording private conversations. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Service availability probes do not collect personal contacts or audio. Capacity controls can improve throughput and resilience, but do not resolve trust, integrity or improper permission boundaries. Here the decisive fact is a mobile app secretly records microphone activity and uploads contact data while presenting itself as a simple calculator. “Spyware collecting private user information” matches that requirement because covert sensor and contact harvesting is surveillance beyond the app's visible function.

B:

Host discovery does not explain secret microphone recordings. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. In the reported situation, a mobile app secretly records microphone activity and uploads contact data while presenting itself as a simple calculator. The effective mechanism is “Spyware collecting private user information”: covert sensor and contact harvesting is surveillance beyond the app's visible function.

D:

Performance metrics do not require recording private conversations. Telemetry provides evidence and may trigger a response; it does not automatically deny a transaction or remediate its cause. Here the decisive fact is a mobile app secretly records microphone activity and uploads contact data while presenting itself as a simple calculator. “Spyware collecting private user information” matches that requirement because covert sensor and contact harvesting is surveillance beyond the app's visible function.

Question 132

After a vendor trial ends, an endpoint is crowded with unwanted ad and toolbar programs that reduce performance but show no clear credential theft. Which category best describes them?

  1. Bloatware and potentially unwanted software
  2. A stealth kernel rootkit manipulating system calls
  3. An authorized encryption key rotation
  4. A known destructive disk-wiping implant

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Excess bundled applications degrade usability without necessarily demonstrating a covert theft objective. Supply-chain assurance must be matched to the delegated role and contracted responsibility, including evidence of controls and recovery expectations, not inferred solely from a supplier label. The case turns on show no clear credential theft; “Bloatware and potentially unwanted software” addresses that precise condition. “A stealth kernel rootkit manipulating system calls” is not equivalent because no kernel-level concealment or privilege boundary violation is evidenced.

Incorrect Answers

B:

No kernel-level concealment or privilege boundary violation is evidenced. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. In the reported situation, show no clear credential theft. The effective mechanism is “Bloatware and potentially unwanted software”: excess bundled applications degrade usability without necessarily demonstrating a covert theft objective.

C:

Key maintenance cannot explain unwanted toolbar installation. The evidence is show no clear credential theft. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. By contrast, “Bloatware and potentially unwanted software” operates on the specific concern: excess bundled applications degrade usability without necessarily demonstrating a covert theft objective.

D:

The case lacks deliberate file destruction or boot sabotage. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. Here the decisive fact is show no clear credential theft. “Bloatware and potentially unwanted software” matches that requirement because excess bundled applications degrade usability without necessarily demonstrating a covert theft objective.

Question 133

A malicious code fragment inserts itself into existing executable files and spreads only when those infected programs are run. Which malware family does this propagation resemble?

  1. Network worm that independently scans hosts
  2. Browser privacy extension
  3. File-infecting computer virus
  4. Distributed denial-of-service traffic amplifier

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The payload attaches to host executable files and depends on executing an infected program. For this case, a malicious code fragment inserts itself into existing executable files and spreads only when those infected programs are run. During an active compromise, containment limits the attacker’s reach while investigators preserve evidence; longer-term eradication and recovery follow different decision criteria. The competing choice “Distributed denial-of-service traffic amplifier” addresses a different mechanism: no traffic-reflection or bandwidth flood is described. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Autonomous network propagation is absent from the infection chain. Assessment identifies a state and supplies findings, but does not itself enforce a preventive control or finish remediation. Here the decisive fact is a malicious code fragment inserts itself into existing executable files and spreads only when those infected programs are run. “File-infecting computer virus” matches that requirement because the payload attaches to host executable files and depends on executing an infected program.

B:

A browser add-on does not ordinarily rewrite arbitrary native executables. Browser and web-origin mechanisms affect one request path; the right diagnosis depends on whether the client or trusted server is performing the sensitive action. In the reported situation, a malicious code fragment inserts itself into existing executable files and spreads only when those infected programs are run. The effective mechanism is “File-infecting computer virus”: the payload attaches to host executable files and depends on executing an infected program.

D:

No traffic-reflection or bandwidth flood is described. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. Here the decisive fact is a malicious code fragment inserts itself into existing executable files and spreads only when those infected programs are run. “File-infecting computer virus” matches that requirement because the payload attaches to host executable files and depends on executing an infected program.

Question 134

Investigators find a process capturing keyboard events before browsers encrypt the input, including password entries. Which threat does this artifact indicate?

  1. Disk fragmentation due to low free space
  2. A TLS downgrade on a router
  3. Keylogging malware at the endpoint
  4. Compromise of the remote DNS zone file

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Local keystroke capture can obtain secrets before TLS protects them on the wire. For this case, investigators find a process capturing keyboard events before browsers encrypt the input, including password entries. During an active compromise, containment limits the attacker’s reach while investigators preserve evidence; longer-term eradication and recovery follow different decision criteria. The competing choice “Disk fragmentation due to low free space” addresses a different mechanism: storage layout does not produce a keyboard event capture stream. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Storage layout does not produce a keyboard event capture stream. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. Here the decisive fact is investigators find a process capturing keyboard events before browsers encrypt the input, including password entries. “Keylogging malware at the endpoint” matches that requirement because local keystroke capture can obtain secrets before TLS protects them on the wire.

B:

Traffic encryption changes occur after keystrokes have already been captured. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. In the reported situation, investigators find a process capturing keyboard events before browsers encrypt the input, including password entries. The effective mechanism is “Keylogging malware at the endpoint”: local keystroke capture can obtain secrets before TLS protects them on the wire.

D:

DNS changes do not read keys typed into local applications. DNS determines how names resolve to network destinations; it is not by itself a mechanism for validating a human identity or code provenance. Here the decisive fact is investigators find a process capturing keyboard events before browsers encrypt the input, including password entries. “Keylogging malware at the endpoint” matches that requirement because local keystroke capture can obtain secrets before TLS protects them on the wire.

Question 135

A payroll service runs normally for months, but an embedded job deletes financial files only when a particular employee ID is removed from HR. What malicious mechanism is suggested?

  1. An accidental full-disk encryption rollout
  2. A worm that spreads after every startup
  3. Logic bomb triggered by a specific business condition
  4. A harmless database view refresh

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The destructive function remains dormant until the programmed event condition is met. For this case, an embedded job deletes financial files only when a particular employee ID is removed from HR. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. The competing choice “An accidental full-disk encryption rollout” addresses a different mechanism: the deletion depends on a targeted HR record rather than a deployment event. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The deletion depends on a targeted HR record rather than a deployment event. Encryption addresses readability of protected data. Authentication, correct permissions and availability must still be enforced separately. Here the decisive fact is an embedded job deletes financial files only when a particular employee ID is removed from HR. “Logic bomb triggered by a specific business condition” matches that requirement because the destructive function remains dormant until the programmed event condition is met.

B:

No autonomous infection behavior is part of the trigger. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. In the reported situation, an embedded job deletes financial files only when a particular employee ID is removed from HR. The effective mechanism is “Logic bomb triggered by a specific business condition”: the destructive function remains dormant until the programmed event condition is met.

D:

Refresh operations do not ordinarily delete records when an employee leaves. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. Here the decisive fact is an embedded job deletes financial files only when a particular employee ID is removed from HR. “Logic bomb triggered by a specific business condition” matches that requirement because the destructive function remains dormant until the programmed event condition is met.

Question 136

A compromised host hides a process by altering kernel process listings, so user-mode tools cannot see it while network traffic persists. Which technique does this imply?

  1. A user-space process launched under a restricted account without kernel hooks
  2. User-mode monitoring with an incorrect process filter
  3. Rootkit-style privileged concealment
  4. A scheduled task that starts a normal process at login

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Tampering with kernel visibility masks malicious activity below ordinary process-monitoring tools. For this case, so user-mode tools cannot see it while network traffic persists. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. The competing choice “A user-space process launched under a restricted account without kernel hooks” addresses a different mechanism: ordinary process privileges do not explain manipulation of kernel process enumerations. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ordinary process privileges do not explain manipulation of kernel process enumerations. Access entitlements govern which specific operations a principal may perform; granting broad roles can expand the damage of credential compromise. Here the decisive fact is so user-mode tools cannot see it while network traffic persists. “Rootkit-style privileged concealment” matches that requirement because tampering with kernel visibility masks malicious activity below ordinary process-monitoring tools.

B:

A process filter can hide entries from one tool, but the scenario explicitly describes altering kernel listings across user-mode tools. Telemetry provides evidence and may trigger a response; it does not automatically deny a transaction or remediate its cause. In the reported situation, so user-mode tools cannot see it while network traffic persists. The effective mechanism is “Rootkit-style privileged concealment”: tampering with kernel visibility masks malicious activity below ordinary process-monitoring tools.

D:

Scheduled tasks can start processes but do not account for hidden process listings after kernel tampering. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. Here the decisive fact is so user-mode tools cannot see it while network traffic persists. “Rootkit-style privileged concealment” matches that requirement because tampering with kernel visibility masks malicious activity below ordinary process-monitoring tools.

Question 137

A service's upstream link saturates with inbound traffic from thousands of unrelated hosts while legitimate requests fail. What network attack is indicated?

  1. Distributed denial of service using broad-source flooding
  2. A simple file-integrity checksum mismatch
  3. A planned failover to an alternate data center
  4. An isolated user mistyping a password

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Many sources overwhelm shared capacity and block legitimate access to the service. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. The case turns on a service's upstream link saturates with inbound traffic from thousands of unrelated hosts while legitimate requests fail; “Distributed denial of service using broad-source flooding” addresses that precise condition. “A planned failover to an alternate data center” is not equivalent because failover improves continuity rather than producing hostile-source flooding.

Incorrect Answers

B:

File hashes do not explain bandwidth saturation from thousands of clients. Integrity evidence helps detect unauthorized changes only when compared with a trusted reference; it is not a substitute for authorization or confidentiality. In the reported situation, a service's upstream link saturates with inbound traffic from thousands of unrelated hosts while legitimate requests fail. The effective mechanism is “Distributed denial of service using broad-source flooding”: many sources overwhelm shared capacity and block legitimate access to the service.

C:

Failover improves continuity rather than producing hostile-source flooding. The evidence is a service's upstream link saturates with inbound traffic from thousands of unrelated hosts while legitimate requests fail. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. By contrast, “Distributed denial of service using broad-source flooding” operates on the specific concern: many sources overwhelm shared capacity and block legitimate access to the service.

D:

One authentication error cannot exhaust the Internet uplink. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is a service's upstream link saturates with inbound traffic from thousands of unrelated hosts while legitimate requests fail. “Distributed denial of service using broad-source flooding” matches that requirement because many sources overwhelm shared capacity and block legitimate access to the service.

Question 138

A small forged DNS request to publicly reachable resolvers produces large responses directed at a victim's spoofed source IP. Which attack mechanism is being used?

  1. A direct password spraying attack
  2. A TCP session hijack using valid cookies
  3. Local disk-filling malware
  4. Reflected DNS amplification

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The attacker abuses response-size asymmetry and forged source addresses to magnify traffic toward the victim. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. The case turns on a small forged DNS request to publicly reachable resolvers produces large responses directed at a victim's spoofed source IP; “Reflected DNS amplification” addresses that precise condition. “A direct password spraying attack” is not equivalent because authentication trials do not rely on spoofed DNS responses.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authentication trials do not rely on spoofed DNS responses. Authentication checks a claimant, but it does not automatically narrow resource privileges or invalidate a different leaked secret. Here the decisive fact is a small forged DNS request to publicly reachable resolvers produces large responses directed at a victim's spoofed source IP. “Reflected DNS amplification” matches that requirement because the attacker abuses response-size asymmetry and forged source addresses to magnify traffic toward the victim.

B:

Cookie theft is unrelated to amplification by open resolvers. Browser and web-origin mechanisms affect one request path; the right diagnosis depends on whether the client or trusted server is performing the sensitive action. In the reported situation, a small forged DNS request to publicly reachable resolvers produces large responses directed at a victim's spoofed source IP. The effective mechanism is “Reflected DNS amplification”: the attacker abuses response-size asymmetry and forged source addresses to magnify traffic toward the victim.

C:

The described burden is inbound network response traffic, not local file allocation. The evidence is a small forged DNS request to publicly reachable resolvers produces large responses directed at a victim's spoofed source IP. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. By contrast, “Reflected DNS amplification” operates on the specific concern: the attacker abuses response-size asymmetry and forged source addresses to magnify traffic toward the victim.

Question 139

Clients enter the right domain but resolve it to an unexpected attacker-controlled address after a resolver cache update. Which compromise is indicated?

  1. A backup snapshot that expired
  2. DNS cache poisoning or unauthorized answer substitution
  3. An ordinary website stylesheet change
  4. A failed physical badge reader

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A tainted cached response diverts name resolution away from the legitimate service endpoint. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. The stated evidence is resolve it to an unexpected attacker-controlled address after a resolver cache update. This distinction rules out “An ordinary website stylesheet change”: cSS modifications do not change resolver records. “DNS cache poisoning or unauthorized answer substitution” addresses the specific security outcome rather than the separate function that alternative performs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Retention periods do not alter DNS answer data. Backups and replicated copies mainly serve recovery and resilience; they do not inherently prevent an attacker from obtaining present access. Here the decisive fact is resolve it to an unexpected attacker-controlled address after a resolver cache update. “DNS cache poisoning or unauthorized answer substitution” matches that requirement because a tainted cached response diverts name resolution away from the legitimate service endpoint.

C:

CSS modifications do not change resolver records. The evidence is resolve it to an unexpected attacker-controlled address after a resolver cache update. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. By contrast, “DNS cache poisoning or unauthorized answer substitution” operates on the specific concern: a tainted cached response diverts name resolution away from the legitimate service endpoint.

D:

Access cards do not decide internet host addresses. Physical mechanisms address passage or impact at a location; they cannot directly repair software validation and network authorization defects. Here the decisive fact is resolve it to an unexpected attacker-controlled address after a resolver cache update. “DNS cache poisoning or unauthorized answer substitution” matches that requirement because a tainted cached response diverts name resolution away from the legitimate service endpoint.

Question 140

A wireless client is forced off the office Wi-Fi by repeated unauthenticated disconnect frames and reconnects to a stronger lookalike SSID. Which attack sequence is suggested?

  1. A routine switch port negotiation after cable replacement
  2. A corrupted disk partition table
  3. Deauthentication disruption followed by evil-twin association
  4. A standard DNS query retry

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Management-frame disruption can steer a client toward an attacker-operated access point. For this case, a wireless client is forced off the office Wi-Fi by repeated unauthenticated disconnect frames and reconnects to a stronger lookalike SSID. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. The competing choice “A routine switch port negotiation after cable replacement” addresses a different mechanism: the event occurs through wireless disassociation and misleading SSID identity. That difference is material to the requested decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The event occurs through wireless disassociation and misleading SSID identity. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. Here the decisive fact is a wireless client is forced off the office Wi-Fi by repeated unauthenticated disconnect frames and reconnects to a stronger lookalike SSID. “Deauthentication disruption followed by evil-twin association” matches that requirement because management-frame disruption can steer a client toward an attacker-operated access point.

B:

Disk layout cannot induce Wi-Fi disconnections toward a fake SSID. Malware and active-attack categories are distinguished by their observed payload behavior, spread mechanism, access path and outcome. In the reported situation, a wireless client is forced off the office Wi-Fi by repeated unauthenticated disconnect frames and reconnects to a stronger lookalike SSID. The effective mechanism is “Deauthentication disruption followed by evil-twin association”: management-frame disruption can steer a client toward an attacker-operated access point.

D:

Resolver retries do not require 802.11 disconnect floods or rogue radios. DNS determines how names resolve to network destinations; it is not by itself a mechanism for validating a human identity or code provenance. Here the decisive fact is a wireless client is forced off the office Wi-Fi by repeated unauthenticated disconnect frames and reconnects to a stronger lookalike SSID. “Deauthentication disruption followed by evil-twin association” matches that requirement because management-frame disruption can steer a client toward an attacker-operated access point.


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