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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 35

Question 340

A router used to have connected 172.20.60.0/24 through Gi0/2. The interface is now line protocol down and the C route disappears. What is the expected route-table behavior?

  1. The connected prefix is withdrawn when its associated interface is not operational.
  2. The connected prefix stays installed permanently until the switch is rebooted.
  3. Configure an OSPF advertisement for the failed subnet and expect it to restore the locally connected C entry.
  4. The router automatically broadens it to a /16 summary.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Connected routes depend on interface state and addressing; losing line protocol can remove their reachability from the routing table.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Connected reachability is tied to a live interface, rather than being a static committed route independent of state.

C:

OSPF could learn an alternative route from elsewhere, but it cannot reinstate a connected route tied to an operationally down interface.

D:

The routing table does not create summary networks when a physical interface goes down.

Question 341

A small office LAN uses 10.55.0.0/24 addresses. Hosts must open sessions to public websites through one ISP-provided IPv4 address. Which edge function is normally required?

  1. Configure a default IPv4 route to the ISP while leaving 10.55.0.0/24 sources untranslated on the public Internet.
  2. Configure a one-to-one static NAT binding for exactly one desktop and assume it will translate all other hosts automatically.
  3. Enable an AAA server to rewrite every private packet source.
  4. Inside-to-outside NAT overload translating many private sources to the public address with port tracking.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

RFC1918 source addresses are not globally Internet-routable; PAT lets many inside hosts share a public identity while tracking transport sessions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A route selects the next hop, but RFC1918 source addresses still need an acceptable translation or an explicit private transport arrangement.

B:

A single static mapping helps one endpoint; sharing one public address across the entire LAN generally requires overload port tracking.

C:

AAA authenticates principals and actions; NAT/PAT is the function that actually translates private IPv4 traffic.

Question 342

Two campus distribution switches have STP primary and secondary root priorities for VLAN 25. If the primary bridge fails, what is the role of the secondary root configuration?

  1. It disables redundant links to every other VLAN permanently.
  2. It automatically assigns the secondary switch every HSRP active gateway role.
  3. It makes the secondary bridge a preferred surviving root candidate when the primary disappears.
  4. It forces a second forwarding root simultaneously for VLAN 25.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A higher-priority backup bridge ID than ordinary switches but lower preference than primary can create predictable root election after failure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Root bridge priority does not administratively shut links or independently control unrelated VLAN instances.

B:

Spanning-tree root and first-hop redundancy gateway elections are different protocols and require separate configuration.

D:

A spanning-tree instance maintains one elected root for topology calculation; a secondary designation is a backup preference.

Question 343

R2 receives OSPF routes but the forwarding ASIC still uses a programmed FIB entry when sending each packet. Which statement describes the control/data-plane distinction?

  1. The FIB replaces the need for any routed protocol or configured route.
  2. Routing protocols compute candidate reachability in the control plane; installed forwarding entries are used by the data plane.
  3. The data plane creates OSPF LSAs for every packet sent.
  4. The control plane rewrites Ethernet headers for every forwarded user packet.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

OSPF exchanges topology and route information, while CEF/FIB and adjacency state support actual packet forwarding.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The FIB reflects selected routing decisions; it does not independently discover reachability.

C:

LSAs are control-plane messages and are not rebuilt for each data packet.

D:

Forwarding hardware/data-plane logic typically performs the per-packet rewrite, not the topology protocol itself.

Question 344

A switch is configured for SNMP monitoring. The NMS reads interface counters through the switch’s SNMP agent. Which role assignment is correct?

  1. The switch runs an SNMP agent; the network monitoring system acts as the SNMP manager.
  2. The switch is the manager because it owns the interface counters.
  3. The monitoring system becomes a router adjacency through SNMP.
  4. The SNMP manager must run on the switch’s access port rather than the monitoring host.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The agent exposes managed variables on the device, while the manager requests or receives information.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Ownership of MIB state does not determine the requester; the switch’s agent responds to the NMS manager.

C:

SNMP has management roles and does not establish routing-protocol adjacencies.

D:

The manager is the monitoring application endpoint and can be remotely hosted with appropriate connectivity and permissions.

Question 345

An IOS lab router requires local usernames and passwords to authenticate administrators arriving on the console port. What console configuration pattern satisfies this?

  1. Set a shared console line password with login, but omit login local and individual username credentials.
  2. Set service password-encryption only, without creating a username.
  3. Configure ip default-gateway as the console authentication secret.
  4. Create a local username secret and configure line console 0 with login local.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

login local on the console uses the router’s local username database, unlike a simple shared line password.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A line password can authenticate access generically, but it does not meet the requirement for administrator-specific local user authentication.

B:

Obfuscation of stored line passwords does not create the requested per-administrator local account authentication.

C:

A default gateway is a forwarding setting; it does not authenticate console users.

Question 346

A data-center VXLAN overlay endpoint cannot reach a remote VTEP, and the physical fabric route to the remote VTEP loopback is missing. What dependency must be restored first?

  1. Increase the VXLAN VNI to a larger value.
  2. Disable all underlay routing to isolate overlay forwarding.
  3. Underlay IP reachability between the VTEP addresses.
  4. Create the VXLAN VNI and remote MAC mapping while leaving the underlay route to the remote VTEP loopback unresolved.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

VXLAN encapsulation still needs a routable outer IP transport path to carry packets between tunnel endpoints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The VNI identifies overlay segments, not a mechanism to repair missing physical IP routes.

B:

Overlay tunnels depend on the underlay to deliver encapsulated frames; suppressing routing worsens reachability.

D:

Valid overlay identifiers cannot deliver the encapsulated packet when its outer IP destination is unreachable through the physical fabric.

Question 347

R1 summarizes 10.48.0.0/16 by advertising a summary with a Null0 discard route, while more-specific routes exist for valid sites. What prevents loops toward unallocated addresses in that summary?

  1. Advertise the summary route to downstream routers but omit the local Null0 discard entry, relying on the default route for unassigned addresses.
  2. The Null0 summary route drops traffic matching the summary when no more-specific route is available.
  3. The Null0 route forwards unmatched packets to the ISP default gateway.
  4. Install an identical-length /16 route through an unrelated peer as a failover, without checking whether the peer owns the unassigned summary portions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A discard summary is a safety fallback: valid specifics win by longest prefix, and unmatched addresses do not circulate indefinitely.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Without the discard fallback, a router may send traffic for nonexistent subnets toward a less-specific route, creating persistent forwarding loops.

C:

Null0 is a discard interface, not an upstream forwarding next hop.

D:

An equal-length alternative does not guarantee safe disposal of nonexistent destinations and can redirect blackholed traffic into a routing loop.

Question 348

A department is assigned 192.168.40.0/24 and splits it into equal /28 VLAN subnets. How many nonoverlapping /28 subnets fit inside?

  1. Sixteen /28 subnet blocks.
  2. Eight /28 blocks because /28 subnets have eight usable addresses.
  3. Four /28 blocks, assuming that adding four subnet bits increases the number of child subnets only by four.
  4. Thirty-two /28 blocks because /28 increases the host-bit count.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A /28 adds four network bits to a /24, yielding 2^4 = 16 equal subnets with 16 addresses each.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A /28 has 16 total addresses and 14 typical usable IPv4 host addresses; eight is not the subnet count.

C:

Each extra subnet bit doubles the available subnet combinations. Splitting a /24 into /28 adds four subnet bits, yielding two to the fourth power, or sixteen /28 networks.

D:

A /28 reduces host bits compared with /24. The available eight host bits split into four subnet and four host bits.

Question 349

A switchport is assigned to VLAN 70, but the connected workstation still uses 192.168.20.30/24 while VLAN 70’s routed gateway is 10.70.0.1/24. What must be reconciled?

  1. Change the switchport access VLAN number to 192.168.20.
  2. Add an IP secondary address on the VLAN 70 gateway for 192.168.20.0/24 without correcting the workstation’s intended address plan.
  3. Enable an 802.1Q trunk on the ordinary workstation-facing port but leave the host’s 192.168.20.30/24 address unchanged.
  4. Assign the workstation an IP address and mask in the VLAN 70 subnet with gateway 10.70.0.1.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An access VLAN determines the Layer 2 broadcast domain; compatible IP addressing is independently needed to reach the routed SVI.

Incorrect Answers

A:

VLAN IDs are not IPv4 addresses and cannot be set to a dotted-quad host subnet.

B:

A secondary SVI network could create unintended subnet overlap and masks the fact that the endpoint should use the planned VLAN 70 prefix.

C:

A trunk changes Layer 2 tagging expectations, not the workstation’s IPv4 network/gateway mismatch in the intended VLAN.

Question 350

An extended ACL is configured inbound on Gi0/0. Operators suspect a rule is dropping HTTPS traffic. Which output most directly indicates whether that ACE is matching packets?

  1. Inspect only show ip interface brief and assume an up interface proves the specific HTTPS ACL entry permits traffic.
  2. The router uptime value in show version.
  3. The match counter next to the relevant entry in show access-lists.
  4. The interface description in show interfaces description.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

IOS ACL counters help identify which ACEs have matched packets; counters and interface direction reveal real filter behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An up routed interface can still have inbound ACL denies; per-entry show access-lists hit counters supply the relevant filtering evidence.

B:

Uptime can establish restart history but does not show whether a specific HTTPS deny ACE matched.

D:

A description records operational labeling but not ACL decision counts.


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