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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 37

Question 360

A static route to 198.51.100.0/24 is configured using only exit interface Gi0/1. The interface goes line-protocol down. What happens to forwarding through that route?

  1. The static path tied to the failed interface is no longer usable and may be removed from the active RIB.
  2. The route stays forwarding normally because static routes ignore interface state.
  3. The router automatically enables Gi0/1 again whenever a packet matches.
  4. The route becomes a directly connected C route automatically.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A static exit-interface dependency needs that interface operational; losing line protocol prevents forwarding through it.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A configured line remains in configuration, but an unusable associated exit interface prevents live forwarding through it.

C:

Route lookup is not an interface recovery mechanism; a physical or administrative link problem still needs repair.

D:

A static route is not reclassified as a connected network merely because an exit interface was named.

Question 361

On a campus uplink, one interface shows an increasing input CRC count but little queue dropping; another shows output drops during busy hours without CRC errors. How should these symptoms be distinguished?

  1. Treat both CRC corruption and egress queue discards as evidence of egress buffer congestion without inspecting media counters.
  2. Treat every output queue drop as an electrical line fault even when the interface CRC counter stays clean.
  3. Output drops can only mean an Ethernet cable has broken.
  4. CRC growth suggests media/frame integrity faults; output drops can indicate queue congestion or resource pressure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Physical or framing errors and egress queue drops point to different investigation paths and should not be treated as the same metric.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Queue congestion does not normally explain a rising CRC/FCS corruption counter, which points first to physical or framing faults.

B:

Queue drops can indicate traffic burst or buffer pressure; a clean CRC trend argues against diagnosing them solely as frame corruption.

C:

A cable failure may affect link state, but egress queue drops commonly arise from traffic bursts or insufficient buffer capacity.

Question 362

An administrator enables spanning-tree PortFast on a trunk connecting two campus switches to speed up startup. What is the primary concern?

  1. PortFast blocks all VLAN-tagged frames permanently.
  2. PortFast forces the trunk into Layer 3 routed mode.
  3. An interswitch link may create a Layer 2 loop before normal spanning-tree protection can react.
  4. Enable PortFast on the interswitch trunk but rely on a root-priority adjustment to prevent a transient loop before BPDUs converge.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

PortFast is intended for trusted edge hosts, not general redundant switch-to-switch links that may carry bridging loops.

Incorrect Answers

A:

PortFast speeds STP transition to forwarding and does not intrinsically prohibit 802.1Q tagging.

B:

STP behavior does not change a switchport into a routed interface.

D:

Bridge priority influences topology preference, but an edge-style rapid forwarding setting is still inappropriate on a redundant switch-to-switch link.

Question 363

Two campus distribution switches use HSRP for the default gateway and PVST+ for switched redundancy. Which statement about their elections is correct?

  1. Assume the HSRP standby gateway must be the blocking STP alternate port for the same VLAN.
  2. The HSRP active router and STP root bridge are elected independently and should be intentionally aligned if traffic design requires it.
  3. Becoming STP root automatically makes a switch the HSRP active member.
  4. Set the HSRP active priority to the value of the switch’s spanning-tree root path cost.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

HSRP controls a virtual Layer 3 gateway, while STP selects Layer 2 root and forwarding roles per VLAN.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Gateway standby role does not force its physical or logical switched interface into a blocked spanning-tree state.

C:

There is no automatic coupling of the two protocols solely by bridge priority.

D:

A numeric similarity between STP cost and HSRP priority does not couple the independent election algorithms.

Question 364

A router sends latency-sensitive voice frames and bulk file-transfer packets through a congested egress link. Which QoS action directly determines how queued frames share transmission opportunity?

  1. Use supported scheduling or priority-queue policies with deliberate bandwidth limits.
  2. Classify voice frames into a high-priority QoS class but use the default FIFO scheduler for every class under congestion.
  3. Mark bulk file-transfer traffic as EF with no policing, expecting identical high priority for all flows to reduce voice jitter.
  4. Increase interface output buffering without inspecting queue policy or applying any scheduling preference for voice packets.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Queuing disciplines allocate egress transmission order and capacity among classified traffic when the interface is congested.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Classification alone cannot guarantee differentiated egress service; the queue scheduler must act on the classes when contention occurs.

C:

Elevating competing bulk traffic to the voice queue can overload the priority class and undermine the intended latency-sensitive treatment.

D:

Buffers may absorb bursts but do not select which traffic class is served first and may increase delay for voice if queues remain unmanaged.

Question 365

A client fails to connect to an enterprise WLAN using WPA2-Personal. The configured pre-shared key on the client differs from the AP’s security profile. What first correction fits?

  1. Change the WLAN profile from WPA2-Personal to WPA2-Enterprise without providing a valid EAP/RADIUS authentication path.
  2. Disable PMF on the client but keep its incorrect WPA2 pre-shared key unchanged.
  3. Change the SSID display name only, leaving the conflicting keys.
  4. Verify and synchronize the WPA2-PSK credentials and compatible security profile on client and WLAN.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A mismatched pre-shared key prevents the expected four-way handshake from establishing usable encryption keys.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Enterprise security relies on a different key management process and cannot solve a PSK mismatch by simply switching modes.

B:

Management frame settings do not replace the shared key needed to complete WPA2-Personal authentication on this network.

C:

A new label does not reconcile the credential mismatch that blocks successful secure association.

Question 366

A controller centrally defines forwarding intent for an SDN campus. A leaf switch continues forwarding known traffic based on programmed entries. Which interpretation is correct?

  1. Switches stop using forwarding tables after joining a controller.
  2. Require the SDN controller to receive every data packet over its management TCP session instead of programming switch forwarding state.
  3. Central policy can shape forwarding state while each switch performs data-plane packet processing.
  4. Allow switches to forward only while an SDN administrator is logged into the controller dashboard.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

SDN can centralize decisions without requiring every individual data packet to be routed through the controller.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Devices still need programmed forwarding behavior to transmit packets over their physical ports.

B:

The controller can select policy centrally, but pulling every packet into the control connection defeats distributed data-plane forwarding.

D:

A user management session is not required for each installed forwarding action, and this would introduce an unnecessary availability dependency.

Question 367

OSPF reaches FULL adjacency and R2 advertises a remote /24. Which router output verifies that an OSPF-learned route entered the IPv4 routing table?

  1. Inspect show ip ospf neighbor and assume FULL state proves every advertised network was installed in the RIB.
  2. show ip route ospf, checking the target prefix and next hop.
  3. show ip interface brief only, checking address state.
  4. show mac address-table for the distant subnet.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The OSPF-filtered RIB view shows selected OSPF routes actually installed for forwarding, rather than merely neighbor state.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Neighbor state is prerequisite evidence, but filtering, route selection and LSDB conditions can prevent a particular prefix from appearing in show ip route ospf.

C:

Interface status does not prove a particular remote OSPF prefix was selected into the routing table.

D:

A Layer 2 switch MAC table cannot list learned Layer 3 OSPF routes across remote networks.

Question 368

A wired office uses two access switches to connect PCs in the same Ethernet VLAN. Which component actually chooses the outbound switchport for a learned destination MAC?

  1. The Layer 2 switch, using its VLAN-aware MAC address forwarding table.
  2. Use the switch IP ARP table alone as the outgoing Layer 2 port selector for known destination MAC addresses.
  3. Use the access switch IP routing table for every frame even when source and destination are inside the same VLAN.
  4. The upstream WAN firewall, even for local frames in the same VLAN.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A switch maps learned source/destination MACs to ports within a VLAN, forwarding known unicast frames without IP routing.

Incorrect Answers

B:

ARP records Layer 3 neighbor-to-MAC bindings; the VLAN-aware MAC forwarding database identifies the local egress switchport.

C:

Local bridged unicast normally uses learned MAC/VLAN ports, not an IP route lookup unless the frame is addressed to a router.

D:

Local Ethernet forwarding can stay within switching and does not normally require hairpinning through a routed firewall.

Question 369

Two switches plan EtherChannel between Gi1/0/1-2 and Gi0/1-2. Both use channel-group 7 locally on one switch and 12 on the other. LACP mode, speed, trunk settings, and cabling match. Is the different numeric channel-group ID alone a problem?

  1. Yes; LACP requires every peer use the same numeric channel-group ID.
  2. Yes; Cisco requires all EtherChannel groups to use VLAN IDs as numbers.
  3. No; LACP works even when member links have incompatible speed or trunk modes.
  4. No; channel-group numbers are local bundle identifiers, while negotiated link compatibility matters across peers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

LACP relies on partner/system and port compatibility, not identical local interface Port-channel numbers on both devices.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The local Port-channel interface number need not equal the peer’s local number to negotiate aggregation.

B:

Bundle identifiers and VLAN IDs serve different purposes and are not required to match.

C:

The numeric ID is not the issue, but member configuration mismatches can absolutely suspend or reject aggregation.

Question 370

A switch administrator changes port-security configuration to avoid a hostile endpoint replacing a trusted workstation’s MAC identity. Which CIA property is most directly at stake if unauthorized frames are accepted as trusted?

  1. Classify the issue as confidentiality only and ignore the integrity of the port’s authenticated endpoint identity.
  2. The CIA triad is irrelevant to switch access because it applies only to servers.
  3. Integrity of network identity and trusted device access behavior.
  4. Availability only because every unauthorized MAC always causes a complete power loss.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

MAC spoofing can undermine integrity of the claimed endpoint identity and lead to unauthorized traffic within a protected segment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Information exposure may result, but MAC impersonation also attacks the correctness of the claimed device identity used for access decisions.

B:

Confidentiality, integrity, and availability also govern network control-plane and access-layer risks.

D:

Unauthorized MAC use does not necessarily remove power; the concern is allowing improper network identity/traffic.


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