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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 34

Question 330

An employee signs in using a fingerprint scan and a hardware token. Which factor types are combined?

  1. Two possession factors, because the biometric is scanned by a reader.
  2. Two inherence factors, because the hardware token is user-specific.
  3. Inherence for the fingerprint and possession for the hardware token.
  4. Knowledge and knowledge, because both can be remembered.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A biometric is something the user is, while a physical token is something the user has; the pair crosses factor categories.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The scanner is a device, but the biometric being verified is the user’s inherent physical characteristic.

B:

Ownership of a token is possession even when the token is assigned to one individual.

D:

Neither fingerprint physiology nor token custody is a secret phrase held solely in memory.

Question 331

An HSRP pair has R1 priority 120 and R2 priority 100. R1 fails and R2 becomes active; R1 recovers later. Which TWO conditions allow R1 to reclaim active status?

  1. R1 is configured to preempt after recovery.
  2. Configure an HSRP priority of 120 on R1 but omit preempt, assuming higher priority always displaces an existing active member.
  3. Configure identical HSRP virtual IPs on both routers but assume R1 automatically preempts when its physical interface MAC address is numerically smaller.
  4. Set the R1 physical interface bandwidth higher than R2’s and expect that alone to override the already-active router’s HSRP role.
  5. R1’s configured priority remains higher than the current active router.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Without preempt, a recovering higher-priority HSRP router does not automatically displace the existing active gateway.

E:

Priority comparison makes R1 the better active candidate when preemption is permitted and HSRP group conditions are satisfied.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Priority alone does not force a recovered router to reclaim the active role; the preempt setting and current group state matter.

C:

A common virtual gateway identity is necessary, but HSRP role changes do not follow the smaller hardware MAC. R1 needs a higher priority and preempt enabled to reclaim the active role after recovering.

D:

HSRP active election is controlled by group priority and preemption behavior, not the raw interface bandwidth. A recovered higher-priority router only reclaims the role when the relevant preempt setting is enabled.

Question 332

A laptop at 192.0.2.41 received a time-limited address from a campus DHCP server; a server has a manually configured 192.0.2.80 that never leases. What distinction is correct?

  1. The laptop’s address is subject to a DHCP lease lifecycle; the server’s static setting is administered independently.
  2. Both devices must renew their addresses through DHCP at the same interval.
  3. The server’s address is a multicast address because it was manually assigned.
  4. DHCP leases never expire once a client has an Ethernet link.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

DHCP dynamically allocates an address for a bounded lease and renews it; static addressing does not depend on that lease process.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The statically configured server is not relying on a DHCP lease or renewal timer.

C:

Manual assignment does not change an ordinary unicast IPv4 address into multicast.

D:

Lease duration and renewal behavior remain relevant regardless of continuous physical connectivity.

Question 333

A small IT team manages thirty wireless APs deployed in retail stores and wants cloud-based centralized configuration and monitoring without maintaining its own controller appliance. What architecture best fits?

  1. Require every AP to be configured only through a local console cable.
  2. Choose a locally hosted wireless controller at every store and manage each one separately despite the requirement for no on-prem controller appliance.
  3. Replace every store AP with an unmanaged Ethernet hub.
  4. Use a supported cloud-managed wireless AP platform and authenticated management dashboard.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Cloud-managed WLAN provides remote policy, inventory and operations where the AP model and management service support it.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Per-device console management cannot meet the requested centralized remote operational model efficiently.

B:

Local controller deployments can centrally manage APs within a site, but multiplying them across stores contradicts the requested cloud-based operational model.

C:

An unmanaged hub has no 802.11 radio management and cannot provide the intended wireless service.

Question 334

Two routers log the same uplink outage, but their timestamps differ by nine minutes. Investigators need to correlate events across devices. Which service should be configured?

  1. Enable timestamps in syslog messages but leave each router’s unsynchronized clock drifting by several minutes.
  2. Configure all routers to use their individual local clocks as authoritative time sources without comparing them with an approved reference.
  3. Consistent NTP synchronization to an approved time source on both routers.
  4. A larger interface MTU so each syslog packet contains more records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

NTP aligns device clocks so syslog timestamps can be compared across a distributed network incident.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Timestamp formatting alone cannot make independent device clocks comparable; configure common NTP discipline as well as useful log metadata.

B:

Local clocks can drift independently, so syslog correlation still shows inconsistent event order until a common time synchronization source is used.

D:

Packet payload sizing cannot align local clocks that are nine minutes apart.

Question 335

A controller API returns what looks like JSON, but a parse fails on {"ports":[1,2,],"ok":true}. What is the syntax error?

  1. JSON cannot contain arrays within objects.
  2. The trailing comma after the last array element is not valid standard JSON.
  3. JSON forbids quoted object property names.
  4. JSON booleans must be capitalized TRUE.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

JSON arrays cannot contain a comma immediately before a closing bracket, even though some JavaScript literal syntaxes tolerate it.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An array value is permitted; only the extra trailing comma makes this payload invalid.

C:

Quoted member names are required in JSON objects and are correctly used here.

D:

JSON uses lowercase true and false; the example’s lowercase true is valid.

Question 336

An OSPF router lists a neighbor in INIT state. Packet captures show it receives the neighbor’s Hellos, but its own router ID does not appear in the received neighbor list. What is the likely condition?

  1. The neighbor is not receiving or acknowledging this router’s Hellos, so bidirectional discovery is incomplete.
  2. The OSPF adjacency has reached FULL and the LSDB is synchronized.
  3. Assume the neighbor is in two-way communication just because a DR has been elected on the multiaccess segment.
  4. An IPv4 static default route is missing from both routers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

INIT means the local router heard the peer but the peer has not demonstrated seeing the local router ID.

Incorrect Answers

B:

FULL indicates completed adjacency, not one-way Hellos as observed in INIT.

C:

DR election does not show that the remote Hello contains this router’s ID; INIT specifically signals missing two-way acknowledgment.

D:

Default route presence does not determine whether an OSPF peer includes your router ID in its Hello neighbor list.

Question 337

A network operator wants accounting records for administrator commands and detailed authorization of permitted commands through an AAA server. Which protocol is commonly appropriate?

  1. TFTP, because it securely records every CLI command authorization decision.
  2. Use SNMPv3 authentication/privacy as a substitute for device administrator command authorization and accounting.
  3. Use RADIUS network-access authentication only and assume it always supplies the same fine-grained CLI command authorization as TACACS+.
  4. TACACS+, which separates AAA functions and can authorize command-level operations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

TACACS+ is commonly used for network-device administration where command authorization and accounting granularity matter.

Incorrect Answers

A:

TFTP is a simple file-transfer protocol and does not implement command-aware administrator AAA.

B:

SNMPv3 secures management-data access, but it is not a TACACS+-style service for detailed per-command CLI authorization and accounting.

C:

RADIUS can authenticate administrators on some platforms, but the requested command-level authorization/accounting is a common TACACS+ strength.

Question 338

A telemetry sender uses UDP to send one-way status updates. Some datagrams disappear on a congested link. Which statement correctly contrasts UDP with TCP recovery?

  1. TCP cannot detect missing data because it never numbers bytes.
  2. UDP uses a three-way connection handshake to negotiate recovery windows.
  3. UDP does not guarantee retransmission or in-order delivery; the application must handle missing data if necessary.
  4. UDP automatically retries every missing segment until acknowledged.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Unlike TCP’s acknowledgment and retransmission behavior, UDP exposes datagram service without built-in reliable delivery semantics.

Incorrect Answers

A:

TCP maintains byte-sequence and acknowledgment state to identify missing stream data.

B:

That handshake is associated with TCP connection establishment, not UDP’s connectionless datagram transport.

D:

Mandatory acknowledgments and retransmissions are not part of basic UDP transport behavior.

Question 339

A switchport Gi0/48 is an 802.1Q trunk, but VLAN 40 traffic does not cross to the neighbor. On one switch VLAN 40 exists; on the trunk its allowed list is 10,20,30. What is the direct defect?

  1. The missing VLAN is repaired by increasing interface duplex.
  2. VLAN 40 is not permitted on the trunk allowed VLAN list.
  3. Configure VLAN 40 as the trunk’s native VLAN at one end while still excluding VLAN 40 from the allowed list.
  4. A trunk can forward only three VLANs in total.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A trunk does not forward tagged frames for VLANs excluded from its allowed set, even when the VLAN exists in the local database.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Duplex settings affect link operation but do not include VLAN 40 in an explicit allowed list.

C:

Changing which VLAN carries untagged traffic does not permit tagged VLAN 40 when the allowed VLAN filter continues to omit it.

D:

802.1Q trunks can carry more VLANs subject to platform and configuration limits; three is not a protocol maximum.

Question 340

A router used to have connected 172.20.60.0/24 through Gi0/2. The interface is now line protocol down and the C route disappears. What is the expected route-table behavior?

  1. The connected prefix is withdrawn when its associated interface is not operational.
  2. The connected prefix stays installed permanently until the switch is rebooted.
  3. Configure an OSPF advertisement for the failed subnet and expect it to restore the locally connected C entry.
  4. The router automatically broadens it to a /16 summary.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Connected routes depend on interface state and addressing; losing line protocol can remove their reachability from the routing table.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Connected reachability is tied to a live interface, rather than being a static committed route independent of state.

C:

OSPF could learn an alternative route from elsewhere, but it cannot reinstate a connected route tied to an operationally down interface.

D:

The routing table does not create summary networks when a physical interface goes down.


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