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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 33

Question 320

R1’s next-hop Ethernet neighbor is on 192.0.2.0/24, while the ultimate packet destination is 10.50.0.9. What information does R1 use to build the outgoing Ethernet frame?

  1. The destination MAC of the resolved next-hop IP, not the remote final host MAC.
  2. The MAC address of the remote 10.50.0.9 host learned through global ARP.
  3. The default gateway MAC of the source workstation, regardless of next hop.
  4. An all-ones broadcast destination MAC for every routed unicast packet.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

IP routing chooses an adjacent next hop, and ARP resolves that next hop’s local link-layer address for the outgoing Ethernet frame.

Incorrect Answers

B:

ARP is link-local; routers do not normally discover remote subnet host MACs across routed hops.

C:

R1 builds a new link-layer frame for its own outgoing segment using its resolved neighboring device.

D:

The router forwards ordinary unicast IP using unicast next-hop MAC resolution, not Ethernet broadcast per packet.

Question 321

A small branch needs Internet access, an internal Wi-Fi network, a policy firewall, and connectivity to its ISP Ethernet handoff. What ordering of roles is conceptually correct?

  1. Put the access point between ISP and router as an Internet routing protocol peer.
  2. Use only an unmanaged switch between the public handoff and all users.
  3. Connect a firewall behind individual laptops with no shared policy boundary.
  4. An ISP-facing router/firewall policy boundary with an internal switch and wireless access point for LAN clients.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The routed security edge handles provider reachability and policy; the switch extends wired access and AP bridges WLAN stations into the LAN.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A typical AP serves wireless clients rather than replacing the provider-edge routed security boundary.

B:

Layer 2 connectivity alone omits address translation, policy and WAN-to-LAN routing functions.

C:

Per-client placement fails to supply the requested managed branch edge and consistent traffic controls.

Question 322

Two switches aggregate two 1-Gbps trunk links in Port-channel5. An engineer configures the bundle as a routed port-channel on one side and a Layer 2 trunk on the other. What must be reconciled?

  1. Disable VLAN tagging on the trunk side but retain Layer 3 routing on the other.
  2. Enable LACP active mode on both ends but leave one Port-channel routed and the other as an 802.1Q trunk.
  3. Both ends must use compatible Layer 2 trunking or Layer 3 routed EtherChannel roles.
  4. Only the Port-channel numeric ID must match across the switches.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A routed interface and 802.1Q trunk have different framing and forwarding contracts; the intended bundle must agree end to end.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing tags may add another mismatch; the channel’s operational mode still needs agreement.

B:

Matching the negotiation protocol does not make Layer 2 tagging compatible with a Layer 3 routed port-channel; channel modes must agree.

D:

Channel-group numbers are local identifiers and do not resolve a Layer 2 versus routed mode mismatch.

Question 323

Two OSPFv2 routers discover each other but remain EXSTART/EXCHANGE over an Ethernet link after a change. Their configured interface MTUs differ. Which remediation targets the database-exchange problem?

  1. Set unrelated router-ID values to the same number.
  2. Correct the interface MTU mismatch so the routers can exchange compatible DBD information.
  3. Disable OSPF MTU checking on one router as the first response while retaining an unexplained physical interface MTU mismatch.
  4. Change OSPF hello timers without examining DBD packets.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

OSPF database description exchanges can reject peers with inconsistent interface MTU; align supported settings rather than mask a real link mismatch.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OSPF router IDs must be unique; making them identical can break adjacencies and does not fix MTU.

C:

Suppressing a consistency check can mask the reported DBD problem and create later data-plane drops; matching link MTUs is the safer direct repair.

D:

Timer differences can prevent initial adjacency, but the stated symptom and confirmed MTU inconsistency point at exchange negotiation.

Question 324

A branch uses dynamic NAT with five public pool addresses and no PAT. Six distinct inside hosts initiate Internet sessions simultaneously. Five translate and one cannot. What explains the sixth failure?

  1. All public dynamic NAT addresses are allocated; without overload there is no sixth simultaneous one-to-one binding.
  2. Dynamic NAT always supports unlimited inside clients with one public address.
  3. The private IPv4 space cannot be translated to a public pool.
  4. Increase the dynamic NAT pool idle timeout so the five already allocated addresses remain reserved longer.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Dynamic NAT without PAT needs an available pool address per translated inside host. When five are occupied, a sixth is unavailable.

Incorrect Answers

B:

That is characteristic of overload using ports, not an ordinary fixed-size one-to-one address pool.

C:

Dynamic NAT is commonly used specifically to map private inside addresses to routable outside addresses.

D:

Longer retention can actually delay address reuse when the public pool is exhausted; the missing sixth mapping needs capacity or PAT.

Question 325

A named extended ACL has permit entries at sequence 10 and 20, and you must insert a deny between them without rebuilding the list. Which IOS operation matches the requirement?

  1. Set the ACL interface direction to both inbound and outbound.
  2. Change the interface IP address to 15.0.0.1.
  3. Append the new deny as sequence 30, expecting it to take precedence over the existing permit at sequence 20.
  4. Enter the named ACL configuration and add a numbered statement at sequence 15.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Sequence-numbered named ACLs support inserting an ACE in a gap without recreating all existing entries.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Applying directions changes where the list filters traffic; it does not insert a statement into sequence order.

B:

The IP address has no relation to the ACE’s sequence number or placement in a named ACL.

C:

ACLs use first-match ordering, so adding a later deny does not position it between 10 and 20 and may be shadowed.

Question 326

A configuration assistant can suggest network ACL changes, but the finance policy prohibits unattended changes to production firewalls. Which control preserves human authority?

  1. Run a syntax checker after deployment and infer that approval was implicit.
  2. Require a change-ticket number as free text but never verify it against an approved request.
  3. Require an authenticated reviewer to approve the exact proposed diff before the deploy tool is enabled.
  4. Let the model publish changes automatically when it reports high confidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An approval bound to the specific change and device prevents a model’s proposal from becoming an automatic security policy write.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Syntax validity and post-deployment verification cannot replace the required pre-change approval.

B:

Unverified identifiers can be invented and do not prove authorized signoff for the actual firewall diff.

D:

Model confidence is not authorization and may be high for a configuration that violates finance policy.

Question 327

R1 has a point-to-point serial interface S0/0/0 toward R2 with PPP encapsulation. It needs a static route to 10.66.0.0/16 over that link. Which route form is sufficient on this point-to-point interface?

  1. ip route 10.66.0.0 255.255.255.255 Serial0/0/0
  2. ip route 10.66.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial0/0/0
  3. ip route 10.66.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial0/0/1, using an unrelated serial interface.
  4. ip route 10.66.0.0 255.0.0.0 Serial0/0/0

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A point-to-point serial interface has a single neighbor on the link, so a static exit-interface route can directly specify the outgoing point-to-point path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A /32 host prefix matches only one address, not the entire 10.66.0.0/16 LAN.

C:

An exit-interface-only point-to-point route is suitable only when its named interface connects to the intended neighbor, not a different circuit.

D:

That /8 mask is not the requested /16 prefix and diverts a broader destination range.

Question 328

A freshly configured IPv6 interface reports a duplicate address before it becomes usable. Which IPv6 function most directly detects this conflict?

  1. Duplicate Address Detection using Neighbor Solicitation on the local link.
  2. Run an IPv6 neighbor-cache lookup after assigning the interface address, but do not send a DAD probe for the tentative address.
  3. Use a Router Solicitation alone to prove nobody has configured this host’s exact IPv6 address.
  4. Accept the IPv6 address immediately after SLAAC construction, assuming a valid /64 prevents duplicate interface identifiers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

DAD probes a tentative IPv6 address before normal use to detect another node already claiming it.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Examining an existing neighbor cache does not guarantee the tentative local address is unused; DAD checks for conflicting ownership on the link.

C:

Router Solicitation discovers routers and prefixes; it does not substitute for the targeted DAD Neighbor Solicitation that detects duplicates.

D:

A syntactically valid SLAAC address can still collide with an existing node; DAD must verify uniqueness before normal use.

Question 329

An enterprise WLAN carries time-sensitive VoIP calls. Voice traffic experiences jitter when downloads contend for the same radio airtime. Which service feature should be evaluated?

  1. Making the SSID name longer so the radio handles more concurrent voice frames.
  2. Assigning the AP an additional management IPv4 address.
  3. Disabling authentication to avoid jitter during active voice calls.
  4. WMM QoS access categories with appropriate voice prioritization.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Wi-Fi Multimedia differentiates contention parameters for voice and other traffic on the wireless medium to help time-sensitive frames.

Incorrect Answers

A:

SSID length identifies a network and does not control airtime scheduling for voice traffic.

B:

Extra management addressing does not classify or prioritize application frames for radio airtime.

C:

Authentication design is separate from how already-associated voice/data frames contend for channel access.

Question 330

An employee signs in using a fingerprint scan and a hardware token. Which factor types are combined?

  1. Two possession factors, because the biometric is scanned by a reader.
  2. Two inherence factors, because the hardware token is user-specific.
  3. Inherence for the fingerprint and possession for the hardware token.
  4. Knowledge and knowledge, because both can be remembered.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A biometric is something the user is, while a physical token is something the user has; the pair crosses factor categories.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The scanner is a device, but the biometric being verified is the user’s inherent physical characteristic.

B:

Ownership of a token is possession even when the token is assigned to one individual.

D:

Neither fingerprint physiology nor token custody is a secret phrase held solely in memory.


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